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BIOD 171 FINAL EXAM AND FINAL EXAM BIOD 151
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Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply. Bacteria Yeast Algae Amoeba - CORRECT ANSWER- -- Algae
- Amoeba True or False: Protista retain unicellular classification, as they are unable to form tissue layers. - CORRECT ANSWER- - True The function of lysosome is (select all that apply):
- To produce energy (ATP)
- Protein synthesis
- Lipid synthesis
- Waste via hydrolytic enzymes
- Protein modification and distribution - CORRECT ANSWER- - Waste via hydrolytic enzymes The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply):
- Wast disposal via hydrolytic enzymes
- To produce energy (ATP)
- Protein synthesis
- Lipid synthesis
- Protein modification and distribution - CORRECT ANSWER- -- Protein synthesis
- Protein modification and distribution Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description. Rough endoplasmic reticulum Golgi apparatus Nucleus Cell wall Plasma membrane Centriole Lysosome - CORRECT ANSWER- - review diagram 1 - C 2 - G 3 - E 4 - B 5 - A The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the (select all that apply): Capsid Cell envelope Outer leaflet Cell wall - CORRECT ANSWER- - Cell envelope
How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate? 1 2 4 34 - CORRECT ANSWER- - 1 ATP In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. Nucleic acids Lactose Carbohydrates Lipids - CORRECT ANSWER- -- Lactose
- Carbohydrates
- Lipids True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. - CORRECT ANSWER- - True In the absence of glucose, which of the following CAN NOT be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. Carbohydrates Nucleic acids Lactose Fatty acid chains - CORRECT ANSWER- - Nucleic Acids True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants. - CORRECT ANSWER- - True
True or False. The β-oxidation pathway is responsible for the ANABOLISM of fatty acid chains. - CORRECT ANSWER- - False the β-oxidation pathways is responsible for CATABOLISM of fatty acid chains The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants: select all that apply. NADH ATP H Glyceraldehyde- 3 - phosphate CO2 - CORRECT ANSWER- -- NADH
- ATP
- H
- CO In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where? - CORRECT ANSWER- - In the membrane The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that apply. NADPH H ATP CO Glyceraldehyde- 3 - phosphate - CORRECT ANSWER- -- NADH
- ATP
Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice. (A) - CORRECT ANSWER- - Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) because this image shows a 2D image of the internal structure, which is only shown by the TEM True or False: A Giemsa stain can be used to determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria. - CORRECT ANSWER- - True True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of bacterial population. - CORRECT ANSWER- - True Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice (B). - CORRECT ANSWER- - Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) because you can see the trademark shell that is shown in the 20nm image. When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such a way to form what? - CORRECT ANSWER- - A dilution gradient. A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalize plating strategy? - CORRECT ANSWER- - Phase-Dilution streak In what phase of dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria. P2 or P4? - CORRECT ANSWER- - P4. The phases concentration rank from P1 being the highest, then P2, P3, and P4. True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop is not required for each phase as long as the bacterial culture is pure. - CORRECT ANSWER- - False
The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple) is acceptable provided what happens? - CORRECT ANSWER- - The resulting gradient has growth of the individual colonies in it True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C. - CORRECT ANSWER- - True When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why?
- MSA agar
- LB media
- MacConkey agar
- Columbia CNA agar - CORRECT ANSWER- - LB media. All other options are forms of selective media which means they would potentially inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults. - CORRECT ANSWER- - True True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus. - CORRECT ANSWER- - True The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by Gram- positive anaerobic bacteria? Tetanus Leprosy Botulism Gas gangrene - CORRECT ANSWER- - Gas gangrene
A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit viral ENTRY of influenza. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why? - CORRECT ANSWER- - Hemagglutinin proteins would be the target because they are directly involved in viral attachment and entry into the host cell. Neuraminidase proteins are involved in the budding and release of new viral particles so they would not be the correct target. True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is dumbbell shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. - CORRECT ANSWER- - False What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus causes temporary or permanent paralysis by infiltrating (infecting) motor neurons within the spinal cord, brain stem, or motor cortex? - CORRECT ANSWER- - Polio What is one of the main functions of light reactions? - CORRECT ANSWER- - To produce a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either the Variola major or Variola minor viruses? - CORRECT ANSWER- - No, both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated in 1977 True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is cone shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. - CORRECT ANSWER- - True What is true pertaining to the dark reactions of photosynthesis? Select all that apply.
- Occur in the membrane
- It is the first step of photosynthesis
- It converts light energy into chemical energy
- Results in the formation of ATP and NADPH
- It is known as the Calvin Cycle
- It is the second step of photosynthesis
- Results in the formation of NADP and ADP
- It is known as photophosphorylation
- Results in the formation of carbohydrates
- Does not depend on sunlight - CORRECT ANSWER- -- It is known as the Calvin Cycle
- It is the second step of photosynthesis
- Results in the formation of NADP and ADP
- Results in the formation of carbohydrates
- Does not depend on sunlight
- List two organs contained in the abdominal cavity. - CORRECT ANSWER- - The abdominal cavity contains the stomach, intestines, spleen and liver
- List two organs contained in the pelvic cavity. - CORRECT ANSWER- - The pelvic cavity contains the bladder, reproductive organs and the rectum a. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ADP. (T or F) - CORRECT ANSWER- - False- (ATP is produced, not ADP) b. Peripheral proteins are found on the outer surface of a cell membrane. (T or F) - CORRECT ANSWER- - True c. Exocytosis is the process that occurs to bring biomacromolecules inside the cell. (T or F)
- CORRECT ANSWER- - False- (process is endocytosis) d. Receptor-mediated endocytosis uses a signaling molecule from another cell, binding to the cell membrane to bring about changes within the cell proteins. (T or F) - CORRECT ANSWER- - True
When there is more surface are and less volume the small cell allows metabolic processes in general to occur faster.
- Explain at least two differences between Type I and Type II alveolar cells. - CORRECT ANSWER- - Type I forms the very thin simple squamous epithelium of the alveoli within the junction of the capillaries; also, Type II produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant which is needed throughout the alveolar surface; and, Type II cells can divide to replace damaged Type I cells.
- Explain what happens to the soft palate during swallowing. Why? - CORRECT ANSWER- - The upward movement of the soft palate prevents food or liquid from entering the nasal passages during swallowing.
- Explain what happens to the epiglottis during swallowing. Why? - CORRECT ANSWER- - The trachea is closed by the epiglottis. The epiglottis moves inferiorly, covering the trachea. This is to prevent food or liquid from entering the lungs.
- Air and food pass in which one of the following areas: Trachea Nasopharynx Oropharynx Alveoli - CORRECT ANSWER- - Oropharynx
- Label the following five items from the diagram: (picture 1) - CORRECT ANSWER- - Label A- Nasal Cavity Label B- Oral Cavity Label C- Soft Pallet Label D- Epiglottis Label E- Glottis
Label F- Trachea Label G- Esophagus Label H- Tongue
- From widest to narrowest, the branches of the bronchial tree are: A. Primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, bronchioles B. Bronchioles, primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi C. Tertiary bronchi, secondary bronchi, primary bronchi, bronchioles D. Secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, primary bronchi, bronchioles - CORRECT ANSWER- - A
- Explain why someone who has hypergastrinemia (excessive secretion of gastrin) might develop gastric/stomach ulcers. - CORRECT ANSWER- - Someone who has hypergastrinemia may develop stomach ulcers because of the increased gastrin which stimulates secretions of hydrochloric acid and pepsinogens. These can irritate the stomach lining and break it down which would lead to ulcers.
- Explain why a patient with liver disease would have intolerance to fatty foods. - CORRECT ANSWER- - The liver produces bile which breaks down fats. If it is not producing bile (or less bile), fats will not be broken down effectively.
- Look carefully at the diagram below. Label the following 5 organs of the digestive system. To receive credit for the intestines you must label the specific region. (picture 2) - CORRECT ANSWER- - 1: Liver 2: Pancreas 3: Stomach 4: Gallbladder 5: Duodenum 6: Ileum 7: Jejunum (not small intestine) 8: Ascending Colon
5: Vomer 6: Inferior Nasal Concha 7: Maxilla 8: Mandible
- Label the bones in the figure below: (picture 4) - CORRECT ANSWER- - A: Pisiform B: Hamate C: Capitate D: Trapezoid E: Trapezium
- Label the bones in the figure below: (picture 5) - CORRECT ANSWER- - A: Trapezium B: Scaphoid C: Lunate D: Triquetral E: 5th metacarpal
- A patient has a diagnosis of osteoporosis. (1) In your own words, describe this diagnosis and (2) What type of bone cell would they be lacking? Explain your answer. - CORRECT ANSWER- - Osteoporosis is a bone disease in which bone tissue degenerates which causes weak bones. This can lead to fractures. They would be lacking osteoblasts which would be decreased and would inhibit bone repair. Basically, the speed of bone breakdown would be higher than that of repair.
- Label the following five muscles: (picture 6) - CORRECT ANSWER- - A: Frontalis B: Temporalis C: Orbicularis oculi
D: Orbicularis Oris E: Zygomaticus major F: Zygomaticus Minor G: Buccinator H: Risorius I: Masseter J: Depressor labii inferioris
- When extensor digitorum contracts, what action(s) occurs? A. Elbow extension B. Wrist extension C. Extension of digit 1 D. Extension of digits 2- 5 E. A&C F. B&D - CORRECT ANSWER- - F
- When flexor digitorum profundus contracts, what action(s) occurs? A. Wrist flexion B. Elbow flexion C. Flexion of digits 2- 5 D. Flexion of digit 1 E. A&C F. B&C - CORRECT ANSWER- - E
- Would you expect a male to have estrogen in their bloodstream? Explain why or why not. (1) Yes. Both male and female bodies produce "all" the sex hormones. However, the ratios are different. (2) The adrenal glands are largely responsible for producing this
- Explain in detail why the thyroid becomes enlarged during an iodine deficiency? - CORRECT ANSWER- - When the iodine is lacking in the diet, the thyroid enlarges in what is called a goiter. When the low level of thyroxin in the blood happened, the anterior pituitary keeps to produce TSH. And then the thyroid answers by increasing in size and producing goiter. However, this increase in size is not effective, because active thyroxin cannot be produced without iodine.
- A- Identify the sensory cell receptor highlighted in blue, below, also indicated by the arrow. B- What sensory information is detected by this type of receptor? (picture 7) - CORRECT ANSWER- - A) Pacinian corpuscle B) Detects pressure (mechanoreceptor)
- A- Identify the sensory cell receptor highlighted in blue, below, also indicated by the arrow. B- What sensory information is detected by this type of receptor? (picture 8) - CORRECT ANSWER- - A) Meisner's corpuscles; B) Detects light touch and vibration (mechanoreceptor)
- Match the cell with its single best description, using each description only once - CORRECT ANSWER- - Keratinocytes - Produces a protein to protect the skin Fibroblasts - Produces collagen Melanocytes - Produces a pigment that absorbs UV rays Langerhans cells - Assists in immune responses Meisner's corpuscles - Detect Light Touch Nociceptors - Detects pain
- What is the name and function of the structure below? (Highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow) (picture 9) - CORRECT ANSWER- - Sebaceous gland- produces oil in which to prevent hair and skin from drying out.
- What is the name and function of the structure below? (Highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow) (picture 10) - CORRECT ANSWER- - Sweat gland (Sudoriferous) - produces sweat almost everywhere In the body and helps regulate body temperature)
True or false: in the loop of Henle water can leave the ascending limb but not the descending limb - CORRECT ANSWER- - false Which of the following is false concerning ADH A. It responds during excessive sweating conditions B. When ADH is in circulation dilute urine is excreted C. ADH acts by increasing channels in the collecting ducts D.It inhibits urine output - CORRECT ANSWER- - When ADH is in circulation dilute urine is excreted Contrast the osmorality of the PCT and at the bottom of the loop of henle. Explain why there is such a contrast - CORRECT ANSWER- - The osmotic characteristics of the filtrate entering the PCT is identical to the surrounding plasma, around 300 mOsm/L. In the descending limb of the loop of Henle, the solute concentration increases as it descends. Once the filtrate reaches the hairpin turn of the loop in the inner medulla, the filtrate increases to about 1200 mOsm/L. The concentration of the solute increases drastically because water leaves the descending limb but not salt Describe the action of aldosterone on the concentrations of the sodium and hydrogen in the filtrate - CORRECT ANSWER- - Sodium is removed from the filtrate while hydrogen is pumped inside of the filtrate Describe the action of caffeine on the nephron - CORRECT ANSWER- - Caffeine is a diuretic that causes the renal tubules to increase in diameter, increasing the amount of flow through the tubules. Which of the following is false concerning cardiovascular baroreceptors A. It is monitored by cranial nerves which signals to the medulla B. If blood volume rises, They cause constriction of the afferent arterioles
