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Chapter 04 Skeletal System, Exams of Pathology

Lappeenranta University of Technology (LUT)Pathology

Chapter 04 Skeletal System Radiographic Pathology 8th Edition by Eisenberg

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 09/03/2024

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Chapter 04: Skeletal System
Eisenberg: Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology, 7th Edition
1. The bone is covered on the outer surfaces by a fibrous membrane called the
a. periosteum
b. endosteum
c. trabeculae
d. cortices:
ANS: a. periosteum
2. The hollow, tubelike structure within the diaphysis is the
a. epiphyses
b. medullary cavity
c. compact bone
d. metaphysic:
ANS: b. medullary cavity
3. A weblike arrangement of marrow-filled spaces separated by thin bone is
a. compact bone
b. dense bone
c. cancellous bone
d. cortical bone:
ANS: c. cancellous bone
4. The secondary ossification center in a long bone is the a. epiphysis
b. metaphysic c. diaphysis
d. shaft:
ANS: a. epiphysis
5. Growth of outer bone diameter is dependent upon
a. osteoclasts
b. osteomas
c. osteocytes
d. osteoblasts:
ANS: d. osteoblasts
6. Bone that develops within the connective tissue is called
a. ossification
b. appositional growth
c. intramembranous ossification
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Chapter 04: Skeletal System

Eisenberg: Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology, 7th Edition

  1. The bone is covered on the outer surfaces by a fibrous membrane called the a. periosteum b. endosteum c. trabeculae d. cortices: ANS: a. periosteum
  2. The hollow, tubelike structure within the diaphysis is the a. epiphyses b. medullary cavity c. compact bone d. metaphysic: ANS: b. medullary cavity
  3. A weblike arrangement of marrow-filled spaces separated by thin bone is a. compact bone b. dense bone c. cancellous bone d. cortical bone: ANS: c. cancellous bone
  4. The secondary ossification center in a long bone is the a. epiphysis b. metaphysic c. diaphysis d. shaft: ANS: a. epiphysis
  5. Growth of outer bone diameter is dependent upon a. osteoclasts b. osteomas c. osteocytes d. osteoblasts: ANS: d. osteoblasts
  6. Bone that develops within the connective tissue is called a. ossification b. appositional growth c. intramembranous ossification

d. epiphyseal growth: ANS: c. intramembranous ossification

  1. Which type of cell is associated with bone resorption and bone removal? a. Osteoclastic. b. Osteolytic. c. Osteoblastic. d. Osteocyte.: ANS: a. Osteoclastic.
    1. A vertebra with characteristics of more than one major division of the spine is called a. spina bifida b. a transitional vertebra c. spondylolysis d. spondylolisthesis: ANS: b. a transitional vertebra
  2. Herniation of the meninges in the lumbar or cervical region is known as a a. meningocele b. spina bifida occulta c. myelomeningocele d. myelocele: ANS: a. meningocele
  3. A rare hereditary bone dysplasia involving the bone resorption mecha- nism of calcified cartilage is a. osteoporosis b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. osteomalacia d. osteopetrosis: ANS: d. osteopetrosis
  4. An inherited disorder of connective tissue characterized by multiple fractures is a. rickets b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. osteoporosis d. osteopetrosis: ANS: b. osteogenesis imperfecta
  5. The most common form of dwarfism caused by decreased enchondral bone formation is a. osteomalacia b. hip dysplasia c. achondroplasia

b. MRI c. CT d. nuclear medicine: ANS: d. nuclear medicine

  1. A disorder that begins as a bone abscess that travels through the medullary cavity and outward to lift the periosteum is known as a. bursitis b. osteomyelitis c. arthritis d. osteolysis: ANS: b. osteomyelitis
  2. Osteomyelitis is correctly characterized as a. the result of bacteria b. pyogenic c. a postoperative complication d. all of the above: ANS: d. all of the above
  3. A disease process usually caused by accelerated bone resorption results in a. osteopetrosis b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. osteoporosis d. osteoarthritis: ANS: c. osteoporosis
  4. To assess bone mineral content from a qualitative approach, the best imaging is a. dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry b. quantitative CT c. ultrasonography d. x-ray: ANS: a. dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
  5. Insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton appearing as a loss of bone density is a. osteoporosis b. rickets c. osteomalacia d. osteopetrosis: ANS: c. osteomalacia
  1. Body weight on weight-bearing long bones may bend or bow as a result of softened bones in cases of a. rickets b. osteomalacia c. osteoporosis d. achondroplasia: ANS: b. osteomalacia
  2. Blood levels with an increased uric acid leading to deposits of crystals in the joints and cartilage is a. osteomalacia b. Paget' s disease c. rheumatoid arthritis d. gout: ANS: d. gout
  3. To demonstrate degenerative knee joint narrowing most accurately re- quires the image be a. completed with stress inversion and eversion. b. weight-bearing standing AP and lateral c. recumbent, AP , and lateral. d. a unilateral study.: ANS: b. weight-bearing standing AP and lateral.
  4. In Paget's disease, the beginning phase involves bone a. reparation b. destruction c. growth d. sclerosis: ANS: b. destruction
  5. The most common initial site of Paget's disease is the a. lower extremities b. skull c. pelvis d. vertebral body: ANS: c. pelvis
  6. Proliferation of fibrous tissue in the medullary cavity is a. tuberculous arthritis b. gout c. Pott' s disease

b. aneurysmal bone cyst c. giant cell tumor d. multiple myeloma: ANS: b. aneurysmal bone cyst

  1. Malignant bone lesions cause soft-tissue swelling and a. cortical bone erosion causing a poorly defined margin b. bone expansion with an intact cortex c. are cystlike structures d. encapsulate filling with fluid: ANS: a. cortical bone erosion causing a poorly defined margin
  2. A classic sunburst pattern of bony spicules that extend in a radiating fashion is a characteristic radiographic appearance of a. giant cell carcinomas b. multiple myelomas c. osteomas d. osteogenic sarcomas: ANS: d. osteogenic sarcomas
  3. Primary malignant tumors arising from the bone marrow of long bones in children and young adults usually causing localized pain are indicative of a. chondrosarcoma b. osteogenic sarcoma c. Ewing' s sarcoma d. fibrosarcoma: ANS: c. Ewing' s sarcoma
  4. The classic radiographic appearance of multiple punched-out osteolytic lesions scattered throughout the skeletal system is suggestive of a. osteogenic sarcoma b. osteoid osteomas c. a giant cell tumor d. multiple myeloma: ANS: d. multiple myeloma
  5. For detecting asymptomatic bone metastases, the modality of choice is a. radiographic skeletal survey b. DEXA scan c. CT bone survey d. radionuclide bone scan:

ANS: d. radionuclide bone scan

  1. Discontinuity of two or more fragments is considered a(n) a. incomplete fracture b. open fracture c. complete fracture d. nonunion fracture: ANS: c. complete fracture
  2. A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone caused by a tumor or infection is known as what type of fracture? a. Greenstick. b. Stress. c. Fatigue. d. Pathologic.: ANS: d. Pathologic.
  3. The healing of fracture fragments in a faulty position is a. malunion b. delayed union c. nonunion d. external reduction: ANS: a. malunion
  4. Suspected nonaccidental trauma is another name for a. pathologic fractures b. battered-child syndrome c. Reiter syndrome d. none of the above: ANS: b. battered-child syndrome
  5. A fracture usually caused by falling on an outstretched hand resulting in posterior displacement of the distal fragment of the radius is a a. Boxer' s fracture b. Smith' s fracture c. Colles' fracture d. Monteggia' s fracture: ANS: c. Colles' fracture
  6. A fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the inferior facet usually associated with anterior subluxation of C2 and C3 is known as a a. clay shoveler' s fracture