Chapter 11 Reproductive System, Exams of Pathology

Chapter 11 Reproductive System

Typology: Exams

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Chapter 11: Reproductive System
Eisenberg: Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology, 7th Edition
1. Which imaging modality has become the primary modality for imaging of both the male
and female reproductive systems?
a. Computed tomography (CT).
b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
c. Positron emission tomography (PET).
d. Ultrasound (US).:
d. Ultrasound (US).
2. Which of the following are radiographic imaging procedures of the female reproductive
system that are commonly used today?
(1) Mammography. (2) Pelvimetry.
(3) Hysterosalpingography.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3:
b. 1 and 3 only
3. A is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis.
a. chancre on the genitals
b. nonitching skin rash
c. cardiovascular calcification
d. neuropathic joint disease:
a. chancre on the genitals
4. Which of the following is characteristic of the secondary stage of syphilis?
a. Neuropathic joint disease.
b. Nonitching skin rash.
c. Chancre on the genitals.
d. Chronic osteomyelitis.:
b. Nonitching skin rash.
5. Which stage of syphilis is incurable?
a. Primary.
b. Secondary.
c. Tertiary.
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Chapter 11: Reproductive System

Eisenberg: Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology, 7th Edition

  1. Which imaging modality has become the primary modality for imaging of both the male and female reproductive systems? a. Computed tomography (CT). b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). c. Positron emission tomography (PET). d. Ultrasound (US).:

d. Ultrasound (US).

  1. Which of the following are radiographic imaging procedures of the female reproductive system that are commonly used today? (1) Mammography. (2) Pelvimetry. (3) Hysterosalpingography.

a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3:

b. 1 and 3 only

  1. A is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis. a. chancre on the genitals b. nonitching skin rash c. cardiovascular calcification d. neuropathic joint disease:

a. chancre on the genitals

  1. Which of the following is characteristic of the secondary stage of syphilis? a. Neuropathic joint disease. b. Nonitching skin rash. c. Chancre on the genitals. d. Chronic osteomyelitis.:

b. Nonitching skin rash.

  1. Which stage of syphilis is incurable? a. Primary. b. Secondary. c. Tertiary.

d. All stages of syphilis are incurable.:

c. Tertiary.

  1. Which of the following body systems may be affected by the tertiary stage of syphilis? (1) Skeletal. (2) Cardiovascular. (3) CNS. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3:

d. 1, 2, and 3

  1. Which stage of syphilis produces radiographic evidence of this disease? a. Primary. b. Secondary. c. Tertiary. d. Radiographic abnormalities of syphilis are evident in all stages.:

c.Tertiary.

  1. Which of the following is a serious complication of gonorrhea in females? a. Fibrous scarring of fallopian tubes. b. Aortic calcification. c. Osteomyelitis. d. Urethral stricture.:

a. Fibrous scarring of fallopian tubes.

  1. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can be demonstrated via

a. ultrasound (US) or CT b. radiography or nuclear medicine (NM) c. NM or single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) d. none of these. PID cannot be demonstrated on images.:

a. ultrasound (US) or CT

  1. Radiographic evidence of gonorrhea is

a. periosteal reaction with dense sclerosis b. septic arthritis with articular erosion and joint space narrowing c. aortic calcification d. none of these. Gonorrhea does not present on radiographs.:

  1. Refer to the image below obtained during an excretory urogram on a male patient. What condition is indicated in this image? (Picture #16)

a. Testicular torsion. b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia. c. Epididymitis. d. Testicular tumor.:

b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia.

  1. Which of the following is the second most common malignancy in men?

a. Seminoma. b. Teratoma. c. Orchioma. d. Carcinoma of the prostate.:

d. Carcinoma of the prostate.

  1. Transrectal ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality for detection of a. epididymitis b. carcinoma of the prostate c. undescended testis d. testicular torsion: b. carcinoma of the prostate
  2. The most common site of hematogenous metastasis of prostate cancer is a. lung b. brain c. kidneys d. bone:

d. bone

  1. Which imaging modality is the most effective screening technique for skeletal metastasis of prostate carcinoma? a. Radiography. b. Ultrasound. c. Nuclear medicine. d. CT.:

c. Nuclear medicine.

  1. What is cryptorchidism? a. The condition of an ectopic or undescended testis. b. Inflammation of the seminal vesicles. c. Agenesis of the prostate. d. Malposition of the epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles.:

a. The condition of an ectopic or undescended testis.

  1. A condition of an undescended testis is known as

a. testicular torsion b. cryptorchidism c. hypogonadism d. testicular anteversion:

b. cryptorchidism

  1. What condition is associated with cryptorchidism? a. Testicular torsion. b. Epididymitis. c. Hypogonadism. d. Malignancy.: d. Malignancy.
  2. Which imaging modality is used as a screening technique when a testis is not palpated in the scrotal sac?

a. MRI. b. NM. c. Radiography. d. US.:

d. US.

  1. The twisting of the gonad on its pedicle is known as

a. vesiculation b. gonadal distension c. testicular torsion d. cryptorchidism:

c. testicular torsion

  1. The preferred imaging modality for demonstration of testicular torsion depends upon

a. time of symptom onset b. age of patient c. degree of swelling d. all of the above:

b. age of patient

  1. How does testicular torsion present on static NM images?

a. An area of decreased uptake (cold spot).

  1. The cyclic changes in the ovaries are controlled by a variety of sub- stances secreted by the

a. ovaries b. anterior pituitary gland c. breasts d. corpus luteum:

b. anterior pituitary gland

  1. Fertilization normally occurs in the

a. ovaries b. uterus c. fallopian tubes d. vagina:

c. fallopian tubes

  1. What is an ectopic pregnancy?

a. Fertilization that does not produce a viable fetus. b. Another term for an embryo. c. A pregnancy that spontaneously terminates in the first trimester. d. A pregnancy that implants somewhere other than the uterus.:

d. A pregnan- cy that implants somewhere other than the uterus.

  1. Which phase of the menstrual cycle occurs between the end of menses and ovulation?

a. Menstrual. b. Proliferative. c. Secretory. d. Preovulatory.:

b. Proliferative.

  1. Which phase of the menstrual cycle occurs between ovulation and the onset of menses?

a. Postovulatory. b. Premenstrual. c. Secretory. d. Proliferative.:

c. Secretory.

  1. The proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle occurs a. between the end of menses and ovulation b. between ovulation and the onset of menses c. at the onset of LH secretion and end of progesterone production d. at the onset of ovulation until fertilization:

a. between the end of menses and ovulation

  1. The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle occurs a. between the end of menses and ovulation b. between ovulation and the onset of menses c. at the onset of estrogen production until the end of progesterone produc- tion d. at the onset of FSH until ovulation: b. between ovulation and the onset of menses
  2. Which of the following are causes of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women? (1) Venereal disease. (2) Complication of intrauterine devices (IUDs). (3) Multiple sexual partners.

a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3:

d. 1, 2, and 3

  1. What is the most common germ cell tumor in women?

a. Leiomyoma. b. Dermoid cyst. c. Seminoma. d. Uterine fibroid.:

b. Dermoid cyst.

  1. Leiomyomas are

a. the most common benign germ cell tumors in women b. the most common gynecologic malignancy c. benign, smooth muscle tumors of the uterus d. malignant, smooth muscle tumors of the uterus:

c. benign, smooth muscle tumors of the uterus

  1. Which of the following most commonly occurs in postmenopausal women?
  1. How does a ruptured silicone breast implant demonstrate on ultrasound (US)?

a. Anechoic center with a thin, well-defined echogenic capsule. b. Snowstorm appearance. c. Well-defined hyperechoic area with surrounding anechoic shadow. d. None of these. US cannot demonstrate a ruptured silicone implant.:

b. Snowstorm appearance.

  1. Which imaging modality is best for demonstration of breast tissue sur- rounding breast implants? a. US. b. Mammography. c. MRI. d. PET.:

c. MRI.

  1. What is gynecomastia? a. Abnormal breast enlargement in males. b. Inflammatory breast disease that occurs in both sexes. c. Absence of normal breast tissue in females. d. The growth and development of breast tissue in an abnormal location.:

a. Abnormal breast enlargement in males.

  1. Refer to the image below.This magnified compression spot of a mammo- gram demonstrates the characteristic appearance of a: (Picture #51) a. simple cyst b. calcific adenoma c. fibrocystic lesion d. breast malignancy:

d. breast malignancy

  1. Which ultrasound (US) fetal measurement is most accurate for determin- ing fetal age between 12 to 16 weeks? a. Biparietal diameter (BPD). b. Fetal femoral length. c. Crown-to-rump length. d. Fetal age cannot be determined from any of these US measurements.:

a. Biparietal diameter (BPD).

  1. Which is the most accurate US measurement of fetal age in early preg- nancy (< weeks)?

a. Biparietal diameter (BPD). b. Fetal femoral length. c. Crown-to-rump length. d. Fetal age cannot be determined via US measurements before 12 weeks of gestation.:

c. Crown-to-rump length.

  1. Which is the most accurate US measurement of fetal age in later pregnan- cy (second and third trimesters)?

a. Fetal age cannot be determined via US measurement in the second or third trimesters. b. Biparietal diameter (BPD). c. Fetal femoral length. d. Crown-to-rump length.

c. Fetal femoral length.

  1. Which term refers to a very small volume of amniotic fluid?

a. Polyhydramnios. b. Oligohydramnios. c. Choriohydramnios. d. Anhydramnios.:

b. Oligohydramnios.

  1. An excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid is termed

a. polyhydramnios b. hyperhydramnios c. choriohydramnios d. oligohydramnios:

a. polyhydramnios

  1. Fetal urinary tract disorders are often indicated by

a. choriohydramnios b. hyperhydramnios c. oligohydramnios d. polyhydramnios:

c. large, soft tissue mass resembling a "bunch of grapes" d. moderately echogenic lesion punctuated with tiny hyperechoic areas:

c. large, soft tissue mass resembling a "bunch of grapes"

  1. What is a choriocarcinoma?

a. A malignant form of trophoblastic disease. b. A malignant tumor of the ovary. c. A malignant tumor of the fallopian tube. d. A malignancy that occurs in a normally developing fetus, usually during the second trimester.:

a. A malignant form of trophoblastic disease.

  1. What hormone is secreted by the testes?

a. Progesterone. b. Testosterone. c. Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH). d. Spermatogone.:

b. Testosterone.

  1. What is a common cause of an inability to empty the urinary bladder in males?

a. Carcinoma of the prostate. b. Bladder carcinoma. c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia. d. Epididymitis.:

c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia.