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Class Test 1 2015 - BIO1004S, Exams of Biology

University of Cape TownBiology

Class Test 1 2015 - BIO1004S University of Cape Town

Typology: Exams

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BIO1004S (Biological Diversity)
UNIVERSITY OF CAPE TOWN
CLASS TEST 1 (21 August 2015)
TIME: 60 MINUTES TOTAL: 50 MARKS
This test paper has two sections. Answer both sections.
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (20 MARKS)
Fill in your name, student number and answers on the MCQ Answer Sheet supplied.
ONLY use an HB pencil for filling in the multiple choice Answer Sheet.
Use a soft eraser to carefully rub out incorrect answers.
Provide the most correct answer to each question.
Negative marking does not apply to this section and unanswered questions are not
penalized.
Enclose the MCQ Answer Sheet in the Answer Book before handing in.
1. In their laboratory simulations of the early Earth, Miller and Urey observed the abiotic
synthesis of
A) amino acids.
B) complex organic polymers.
C) DNA.
D) liposomes.
E) genetic systems.
2. Which of the following pairs of structures is least likely to represent homology?
A) The wings of a bat and the arms of a human.
B) The hemoglobin of a baboon and that of a gorilla.
C) The mitochondria of a plant and those of an animal.
D) The wings of a bird and those of an insect.
E) The brain of a cat and that of a dog.
3. DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of
corresponding genes in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that
A) humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.
B) humans evolved from chimpanzees.
C) chimpanzees evolved from humans.
D) convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities.
E) humans and chimpanzees are not closely related.
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BIO1004S (Biological Diversity) UNIVERSITY OF CAPE TOWN CLASS TEST 1 (21 August 2015)

TIME: 60 MINUTES TOTAL: 50 MARKS

This test paper has two sections. Answer both sections.

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (20 MARKS)

Fill in your name, student number and answers on the MCQ Answer Sheet supplied.ONLY use an HB pencil for filling in the multiple choice Answer Sheet.Use a soft eraser to carefully rub out incorrect answers.Provide the most correct answer to each question.Negative marking does not apply to this section and unanswered questions are not penalized.Enclose the MCQ Answer Sheet in the Answer Book before handing in.

  1. In their laboratory simulations of the early Earth, Miller and Urey observed the abiotic synthesis of A) amino acids. B) complex organic polymers. C) DNA. D) liposomes. E) genetic systems.
  2. Which of the following pairs of structures is least likely to represent homology?

A) The wings of a bat and the arms of a human. B) The hemoglobin of a baboon and that of a gorilla. C) The mitochondria of a plant and those of an animal. D) The wings of a bird and those of an insect. E) The brain of a cat and that of a dog.

  1. DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that A) humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor. B) humans evolved from chimpanzees. C) chimpanzees evolved from humans. D) convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities. E) humans and chimpanzees are not closely related.
  1. Which statement best describes the evolution of pesticide resistance in a population of insects? A) Individual members of the population slowly adapt to the presence of the chemical by striving to meet the new challenge. B) All insects exposed to the insecticide begin to use a formerly silent gene to make a new enzyme that breaks down the insecticide molecules. C) Insects observe the behavior of other insects that survive pesticide application, and adjust their own behaviors to copy those of the survivors. D) Offspring of insects that are genetically resistant to the pesticide become more abundant as the susceptible insects die off.
  2. Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population? A) Genetic variation among individuals B) Variation among individuals caused by environmental factors C) Sexual reproduction D) B and C only E) A, B, and C
  3. Which of these naturalists synthesized a concept of natural selection independently of Darwin? A) Charles Lyell B) Gregor Mendel C) Alfred Wallace D) John Henslow E) Thomas Malthus
  4. Darwin's mechanism of natural selection required long time spans in order to modify species. From whom did Darwin get the concept of Earth's ancient age? A) Georges Cuvier B) Charles Lyell C) Alfred Wallace D) Thomas Malthus E) John Henslow
  1. A genetic change that caused a certain Hox gene to be expressed along the tip of a vertebrate limb bud instead of farther back helped to make possible the evolution of the tetrapod limb. This type of change is illustrative of A) the influence of environment on development. B) paedomorphosis. C) a change in a developmental gene or in its regulation that altered the spatial organization of body parts. D) heterochrony. E) gene duplication.
  2. Dog breeders maintain the purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds apart when they are fertile. This kind of isolation is most similar to which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms? A) reduced hybrid fertility. B) hybrid breakdown. C) mechanical isolation. D) habitat isolation. E) gametic isolation.
  3. Why are viruses referred to as obligate parasites?

A) They cannot reproduce outside of a host cell. B) Viral DNA always inserts itself into host DNA. C) They invariably kill any cell they infect. D) They can incorporate nucleic acids from other viruses. E) They must use enzymes encoded by the virus itself.

  1. According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate? A) from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for proteins in energy-transfer reactions. B) from engulfed, originally free-living prokaryotes. C) by secondary endosymbiosis. D) from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes. E) when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protobiont.
  2. In most fungi, karyogamy does not immediately follow plasmogamy, which consequently

A) means that sexual reproduction can occur in specialized structures. B) results in multiple diploid nuclei per cell. C) allows fungi to reproduce asexually most of the time. D) results in heterokaryotic or dikaryotic cells. E) is strong support for the claim that fungi are not truly eukaryotic.

  1. Bryophytes never formed forests (mats, yes, but not forests) because

A) they possess flagellated sperms. B) not all are heterosporous. C) they lack lignified vascular tissue. D) they have no adaptations to prevent desiccation. E) the sporophyte is too weak.

  1. The most recent common ancestor of all land plants was probably similar to modern- day members of which group? A) green algae. B) red algae. C) charophytes. D) brown algae. E) angiosperms.
  2. Plants with a dominant sporophyte are successful on land partly because

A) having no stomata, they lose less water. B) they all disperse by means of seeds. C) diploid plants experience fewer mutations than do haploid plants. D) their gametophytes are completely enclosed within sporophyte tissue. E) eggs and sperm need not be produced.

  1. Which of these is the most common compound in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria? A) cellulose. B) lipopolysaccharide. C) lignin. D) peptidoglycan. E) protein.
  2. The result of heterospory is

A) the existence of male and female sporophytes. B) the existence of male and female gametophytes. C) the absence of sexuality from both plant generations. D) both (A) and (B) above.