CR1 exam questions newest version, Exams of Advanced Education

CR1 exam questions newest version

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 06/22/2026

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CR1 exam questions newest version
1. An access cavity is created in a posterior tooth by:
A.
Using a round bur and placing it in the central fossa and
penetrating the roof of the chamber
B. Using a round bur and drilling between the marginal ridges
C. Funneling the walls of the cavity
D.
Using a round bur, penetrating and removing the roof of the
chamber and funneling from that point to the height of the
cuspal inclines
E.
Using a fissure bur: D
2.
The properly designed access cavity is:
A. One where all walls converge in the direction of the canals
B. One where the buccal/labial wall diverges and the palatal/lingual
is at right
angles to the floor of the chamber
C. One where all walls diverge from the floor of the chamber to the
height of
the cuspal incline
D. One where the pulp horns are exposed
E.
One where the walls are parallel to each other:
C
3. In a posterior tooth, if the access is extended to the height of
the cuspal
inclines one can be certain that the:
A. Tooth has not been undermined
B. Only the lingual wall will have been undermined
C. Buccal wall will undermined
D. Pulp horns have been included
E.
Mesial and distal walls will have been undermined: D
4.
In a correctly designed access cavity, the enamel:dentin ratio at
the cervix, as compared to the ratio prior to the preparation, will
be:
A. The dentin thickness equals that of the enamel
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25

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CR1 exam questions newest version

  1. An access cavity is created in a posterior tooth by: A. Using a round bur and placing it in the central fossa and penetrating the roof of the chamber B. Using a round bur and drilling between the marginal ridges C. Funneling the walls of the cavity D. Using a round bur, penetrating and removing the roof of the chamber and funneling from that point to the height of the cuspal inclines E. Using a fissure bur: D
  2. The properly designed access cavity is: A. One where all walls converge in the direction of the canals B. One where the buccal/labial wall diverges and the palatal/lingual is at right angles to the floor of the chamber C. One where all walls diverge from the floor of the chamber to the height of the cuspal incline D. One where the pulp horns are exposed E. One where the walls are parallel to each other: C
  3. In a posterior tooth, if the access is extended to the height of the cuspal inclines one can be certain that the: A. Tooth has not been undermined B. Only the lingual wall will have been undermined C. Buccal wall will undermined D. Pulp horns have been included E. Mesial and distal walls will have been undermined: D
  4. In a correctly designed access cavity, the enamel:dentin ratio at the cervix, as compared to the ratio prior to the preparation, will be: A. The dentin thickness equals that of the enamel

2 / 37 B. Approximately the same C. Will be the same as in the buccal bulge of the crown D. The dentin will be thinner E. The enamel will be thicker: B

  1. The number 10, 15, 20, etc. in hand files describes: A. The maximum diameter of the file B. The minimum diameter of the file C. A multiple of. D. The first three sizes of files E. The length of the file: B
  2. The purpose of an access cavity is to: A. Enable the canals to be cleaned and shaped unimpeded by coronal tooth structure B. Follow the outline of the shape of the tooth C. Remove the pulp from the chamber D. Expose the orifice(s) to the canal(s) E.Create an environment that allows for the canals to be cleaned and shaped- : A
  3. The shape of the access cavity for any tooth is: A. Rectangular B. Shape of the tooth C. Ovoid D. A combo of triangular and ovoid E. Triangular: B
  4. Isolation means: A. Putting on the rubber dam B. Putting on the rubber dam and using cotton rolls C.Putting on the rubber dam, placing cotton rolls and tying dental floss to the clamp D. Putting on the rubber dam in such a manner that liquids cannot enter or leave the surgical field E. Putting on the rubber dam, placing cotton rolls and the saliva ejector: D
  5. When gaining access, the proper position of the bur for an

4 / 37 apical curve D. It should only be inserted into the coronal third of the canal E. It should be inserted passively: E

  1. How are hand files (.02) primarily used? A. Leaning it against the wall of the canal and pulling it coronally in a circum-ferential manner B. In a one eighth of a turn and remove C. In a vertical manner and remove D. In a quarter turn and remove: A
  2. How does one minimize fracture of canal instruments? A. Ensure the file is straight B. Gently rotate them more than 180 degrees C. When feeling resistance, push through D. Frequently monitor the condition of the file: D
  3. The measurement x-ray is taken: A. After the canal is cleaned and shaped B. With the first instrument that binds in the canal C. Before the canal system is cleaned and shaped D. With the first instrument that is inserted to the apex E. With a # 25 file: D
  4. The color of the handle of a hand #10 file is: A. Green B. Purple C. White D. Red E. Gray: B
  5. The color of the handle of a hand #15 file is: A. Red B. Gray C. Green D. White E. Purple: D
  6. The color of the handle of a hand #40 file is:

5 / 37 A. White B. Black C. Green D. Blue E. Red: B

  1. What is the "safety" feature of the "Wave One" file? A. The shaft is longer than a comparable .02 file B. The cutting portion of the shaft is wound clockwise C. The cutting portion of the shaft is wound counter-clockwise D. The shaft is shorter than a comparable .02 file: C
  2. Which statement is TRUE with respect to the "Wave One" rotary technique? A. Straight line access to the canals is not essential. B. One progresses to the apex in increments with the "Wave One" technique. C. It is not necessary to create a glide path with a hand file prior to using the "Wane One" instrument. D. The first area to be cleaned and shaped is the apical third.: B
  3. The apical termination point for cleaning and shaping the root canal should be: A. 0.5 mm beyond the radiographic apex B. The radiographic apex C. Within 2 mm of the radiographic apex D. At the major diameter of the apical foramen: B -anatomical apex is .5mm beyond radiographic
  4. Which is not a mechanical objective of cleaning and shaping of the root canal system? A. Straightening the curves of the canal B. The apical foramen should remain in its original spatial relationship to the root surface C. Creating a continuously tapering funnel D. The apical foramen should be kept as small as biologically and mechanically possible E. The canal preparation should "flow" with the shape of the original canal: A

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E. A & B: E

  1. After the master Gutta Percha (GP) cone is laterally condensed, there is space between it and the walls of the canal. How does one deal with this space? A. A. Insert an additional two GP cones into the canal space and condense them B. Condense additional GP and sealer into canal space until a solid 3-D obtu-ration is achieved C. Ignore it as long as the apex is filled D. Add more sealer along the walls E. Place accessory GP cones into the canal: B
  2. When it is verified that the Gutta Percha cone extends to the apex and there is "tug back", one can assume only that: A. No sealer is needed B. The cone is fitting vacuum-sealed at the apex C. The canal is free of sealer D. There is contact between the Gutta Percha and the canal walls E. Only a few accessory cones will be needed: D
  3. At what depth is the first bead of sealer introduced into the canal? A. All the way to the apex B. 2.0 mm deep into the canal C. Halfway into the canal D. 4 mm deep into the canal E. 3.0 mm below cervical line: C
  4. Which is NOT a phase of Endodontic treatment? A. Preparation B. Access C. Obturation D. Cleaning and Shaping: A
  5. What is the obturation technique we use when packing the canal? A. Lateral-Vertical Condensation

8 / 37 B. Vertical condensation C. Rotational compaction D. Balanced-force condensation E. Lateral condensation: E

  1. How does one determine at which level of the canal the "tug back" is occurring? A. Gently raise and lower the Gutta Percha cone in the canal and feel where it is tugging B. Remove the cone from the canal, hold it front of a bright light, slowly rotate it and look for bind markings C. Place a fiber optic light on the lingual/palatal surface of the alveolus and see at which point the light stops being transmitted through to the opposite side D. Examine the x-ray: B
  2. Why is it necessary to obturate the canal system? A. To prevent hydrophillic growth B. To avoid extraction of the tooth. C. So that air does not get into the canal and support aerophillic growth. D. To prevent the canal system from becoming a conduit for saliva. E. To control the bacterial flora in the canal: D
  3. How does one mix root canal sealer? A. The liquid is added in small increments to the powder B. The powder is added to the liquid in very small increments and mixed until all the granules are incorporated before more powder is added C. The powder is added in large increments and mixed quickly D. The liquid is added to the powder: B
  4. Select the correct descending order of the non-standardized Gutta Percha. A. Large, Medium, Fine-medium, Fine, Medium-fine B. Medium-large, Large, Fine-medium, Medium, Medium-fine, Fine

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  1. The sealer is mixed into a: A. Spike-forming consistency B. Creamy consistency C. Loose consistency D. Firm consistency: B
  2. Which of the following statements defines scaling? A. Removal of stain from the coronal tooth surface B. Removal of gross accumulations of plaque, calculus and stains from the enamel and root surface C. Burnishing calculus on the cemental surface D. Removal of loosely attached endotoxins in the cementum: B
  3. Which of the following statements defines root planing? A. Removal of gross accumulations of plaque, calculus and stains from the enamel and root surface B. Burnishing calculus on the cemental surface C. Removal of stain from the coronal tooth surface D. Removal of loosely attached endotoxins in the cementum: D
  4. Which of the following instruments is BEST used to determine the presence of bone loss between the roots of a molar? A. 11/12 explorer B. Anterior scaler C. Posterior scaler D. Nabers' probe E. Periodontal probe: D
  5. Which of the following clinical findings are typical signs of gingival inflam-mation? A. Erythema, bleeding on probing and tooth mobility B. Edema, tooth mobility and pain C. Erythema, tooth mobility and edema D. Erythema, bleeding-on-probing and edema E. All of the above: D
  6. :
  7. Normal, healthy gingiva should have marginal gingiva that is

11 / 37 knife-edged. When there is interproximal contact between teeth: A. The papilla is present and square B. The papilla is present and dull C. The papilla is present and sharp D. The papilla is absent: C

  1. Normal, healthy gingiva should have marginal gingiva that is knife-edged. When there is NO interproximal contact between teeth: A. The papilla is present and square B. The papilla is present and dull C. The papilla is present and sharp D. The papilla is absent: D
  2. From a periodontal viewpoint, which embrasure is most significant? A. Lingual B. Gingival C. Interdental D. Coronal E. Occlusal: B
  3. The facial aspect of the attached gingiva extends to the relatively loose and movable: A. Lingual mucosa B. Interdental papilla C. Alveolar mucosa D. Mucogingival junction: C
  4. Miller's Index is used to determine A. Rest position B. Decay C. Probing depths D. Mobility E. Calculus position: D
  5. In order to obtain accurate probing depths, the probe must be positioned properly and the depths measured from the:

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D. A & B

E. B & C: D

  1. Tooth mobility is measured using: A. Two blunt ends of two instruments B. Two fingers C. One instrument and one finger D. Having the patient bite up and down: A
  2. A Curet (Curette) is a periodontal instrument A. Used for detecting calculus B. With a sharp cutting edges ending in a pointed tip C. Used primarily for supragingival scaling D. With sharp cutting edges that meet at a rounded toe: D
  3. Gingival recession is measured from the A. Cusp tip to the CEJ B. Height of contour to the CEJ C. CEJ to the mucogingival line D. CEJ to the free gingival margin: D
  4. Which factor(s) affect measurement of clinical attachment levels? A. Presence of plaque B. Medications taken C. Presence of calculus D. Use of a Nabers' probe: C
  5. Which factor(s) affect measurement of clinical attachment levels? A. Inflammation B. Probing technique C. A and B D. None of the above: C
  6. Which of the following instruments is best for root planing the mesial surface of a maxillary first molar that has a probing depth of 6 mm? A. Gracey 11/12 curet

14 / 37 B. Posterior sickle scaler C. Anterior sickle scaler

16 / 37 C. To measure the free gingival margin D. To cause bleeding on gentle stimulation: B

  1. It has been said that in order to adequately remove light to moderate subgingival calculus in a quadrant one must instrument for more than how many minutes? A. 20 minutes B. 50 minutes C. 40 minutes D. 30 minutes: A
  2. Just like hand scalers, ultrasonic inserts and tips are designed for: A. Universal application B. All areas of application C. Specific purpose and accessibility D. Area specific application only: C
  3. What are the two design considerations with ultrasonic tip selection? A. Diameter and shape B. Slim and ultraslim C. Straight and curved D. Standard and slim: A
  4. Additional benefits of the newer ultra-slim tip include: A. When used, no other tip needs to be considered B. Removes tenacious calculus from all surfaces C. Has twice the power on lower power settings D. Access to very narrow pockets and increased tactile sensitivity: D
  5. The curved design available in the slim diameter is indicated specifically for which areas of access? A. Line angles B. Posterior root adaptation C. Anterior root adaptation D. Facial and lingual surfaces: B
  6. Which tip design is least invasive to root surface and retains

17 / 37 more dental cementum during scaling with recommended use and settings?

19 / 37 C. Narrow pockets and difficult to access areas D. High power for moderate to heavy calculus removal: D

  1. The standard diameter tip with a triple bend design has improved adapta-tion for which of the following areas? A. lnterproximal and line angle surfaces B. Deep pockets on single rooted teeth C. Furcation involved posterior teeth D. Narrow pockets and difficult to access areas: A
  2. The standard diameter tip with a triple bend has design limitations. Which of the following is a limitation of this design? A. Line angles B. Facial and lingual surfaces C. Pockets greater than 4mm D. Interproximal surfaces: C
  3. Instruments with "bladed" edges have increased power distribution in which areas of the tip? A. on the face of the tip B. on the back of the tip C. on the heal of the tip D. at the apex of the bladed edge: D
  4. Having a light grasp on the instrument ensures that you are maintain which of the following? A. Heavy calculus removal strokes B. Adaptation of the terminal 2-3 mm of the tip C. good operator position D. A light lateral pressure: D
  5. In addition to the standard straight shapes, the slim design also is available in which of the following shapes? A. Triple bend B. Single bend C. Curved D. Double bend: C

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  1. The specially designed Beavertail insert is recommended for which of the following conditions? A. Plaque and biofilm disruption B. Heavy calculus ledges C. Deep, narrow pockets D. Furcation involvement: B
  2. The formation and implosion of atomized gas bubbles caused by pressure waves in a fluid medium is referred to as: A. Bactericidal Lineangles B. Cavitation C. Acoustic turbulence D. Mechanical: B
  3. The swirling effect produced by the current created from acoustic mi-crostreaming that aids in the disruption of plaque biofilm is called: A. acoustic turbulence B. caviation C. mechanical D. acoustic microstreaming: A
  4. An ultrasonic tip will complete a pattern of oscillation 25,000 to 42,000 times per second. This statement is describing which property of the ultrasonic scaler? A. Cavitation B. Acoustic turbulence C. Bactericidal D. Mechanical: D
  5. The instrument stoke used should be repeated short, overlapping, brush-like stoke with very light lateral pressure. Why is this stoke recommend-ed? A. Far more complete coverage of the surface area being scaled B. To complete the scaling procedure faster C. To ensure less clinician fatigue