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Question 1. Which of the following best describes the CALMS framework in DevOps? A) Culture, Automation, Lean, Measurement, Sharing B) Code, Architecture, Logging, Monitoring, Security C) Continuous, Agile, Lean, Metrics, Scaling D) Collaboration, Automation, Leadership, Metrics, Strategy Answer: A Explanation: CALMS stands for Culture, Automation, Lean, Measurement, and Sharing, the five pillars that define a successful DevOps practice. Question 2. In the “Three Ways” of DevOps, the “Flow” principle primarily focuses on: A) Reducing feedback loops between teams B) Accelerating the delivery of work from Development to Operations C) Conducting post‑mortems without blame D) Automating security testing early in the pipeline Answer: B Explanation: “Flow” emphasizes smooth, fast movement of work through the value stream, minimizing hand‑offs and delays. Question 3. Value Stream Mapping is used to: A) Document code libraries used in a project B) Identify and eliminate waste in the software delivery process C) Create a visual representation of database schemas D) Track employee performance metrics Answer: B Explanation: Value Stream Mapping visualizes each step of the delivery process to spot non‑value‑adding activities.
Question 4. “Shifting left” in DevOps means: A) Moving deployment responsibilities to the operations team B) Integrating quality, security, and testing earlier in the SDLC C) Delaying performance testing until after release D) Adding more manual approvals in the pipeline Answer: B Explanation: Shifting left pushes testing, security, and quality checks toward the beginning of development. Question 5. Which Agile framework emphasizes continuous flow and limits work in progress? A) Scrum B) Kanban C) XP D) Waterfall Answer: B Explanation: Kanban uses visual boards and WIP limits to maintain a steady flow of work. Question 6. In Lean thinking, the term “Muda” refers to: A) Customer value B) Continuous improvement C) Waste D) Standardized work Answer: C Explanation: “Muda” is Japanese for waste, which Lean aims to eliminate. Question 7. ITIL’s “Change Management” process primarily helps DevOps by:
Question 10. In Git, a “pull request” is primarily used for: A) Merging code without review B) Requesting changes from the repository owner C) Proposing code changes and facilitating peer review before merging D) Deleting a branch from the remote repository Answer: C Explanation: Pull requests enable developers to discuss, review, and approve changes before integration. Question 11. Which build automation tool is most commonly associated with Java projects? A) npm B) Gradle C) Make D) Ant Answer: B Explanation: Gradle (and Maven) are widely used for building Java applications; Gradle offers incremental builds and DSL. Question 12. Unit tests are typically executed at which stage of a CI pipeline? A) After deployment to production B) During the build phase before artifact creation C) Only when a release manager approves D) During manual QA testing Answer: B Explanation: Unit tests run early, during the build, to verify individual components quickly.
Question 13. An artifact repository such as Artifactory primarily provides: A) Source code versioning B) Centralized storage and versioning of binary packages C) Real‑time log aggregation D) Automated security scanning of containers Answer: B Explanation: Artifact repositories store compiled binaries, Docker images, and other build outputs. Question 14. Which CI/CD tool uses a declarative YAML file named .gitlab-ci.yml to define pipelines? A) Jenkins B) GitHub Actions C) GitLab CI D) CircleCI Answer: C Explanation: GitLab CI reads .gitlab-ci.yml to configure stages, jobs, and runners. Question 15. Blue/Green deployment primarily aims to: A) Deploy new code to a subset of users for testing B) Replace the entire production environment with a new version while keeping the old one running for rollback C) Gradually roll out updates node by node D) Run two versions simultaneously for A/B testing Answer: B Explanation: Blue/Green keeps the old (“blue”) environment live while the new (“green”) is prepared, enabling instant rollback.
Question 19. The term “idempotent” in the context of IaC means: A) The operation always produces different results on each run B) The operation can be rolled back automatically C) Repeated executions of the same configuration result in the same state D) The code must be written in an imperative style Answer: C Explanation: Idempotent operations ensure that applying the same configuration multiple times yields the same outcome. Question 20. Terraform’s “plan” command is used to: A) Apply changes directly to the cloud environment B) Destroy all managed resources C) Show a preview of what changes will be made without executing them D) Initialize the backend state storage Answer: C Explanation: terraform plan calculates and displays the actions Terraform will take, allowing review before apply. Question 21. In a declarative IaC tool, you describe: A) The exact steps to reach the desired state B) The final desired state, letting the engine figure out the steps C) Only the variables needed for scripts D) The order of API calls to the cloud provider Answer: B Explanation: Declarative tools let you state the target state; the engine determines how to achieve it.
Question 22. Which configuration management tool uses a “push” model by default, sending configurations from a central machine to targets? A) Chef B) Puppet C) Ansible D) SaltStack (masterless) Answer: C Explanation: Ansible uses SSH to push modules and apply configurations without agents. Question 23. Desired State Configuration (DSC) is a feature of which platform? A) Docker B) Windows PowerShell C) Kubernetes D) Terraform Answer: B Explanation: PowerShell DSC defines the intended state of Windows components and ensures compliance. Question 24. Drift detection helps teams to: A) Automatically scale containers based on load B) Identify when a system’s actual state diverges from its declared configuration C) Encrypt secrets stored in version control D) Generate unit tests for infrastructure code Answer: B Explanation: Drift detection monitors for unintended changes that cause configuration drift. Question 25. In Docker, the instruction FROM alpine:3.12 in a Dockerfile specifies:
B) Packaging, versioning, and deploying Kubernetes applications C) Managing Docker image layers D) Automating CI pipeline triggers Answer: B Explanation: Helm provides a templating engine and package manager for Kubernetes resources. Question 29. The “RED” metric acronym in observability stands for: A) Requests, Errors, Duration B) Replication, Elasticity, Deployments C) Resources, Events, Data D) Reliability, Efficiency, Debugging Answer: A Explanation: RED (Request rate, Errors, Duration) is a core set of metrics for service health. Question 30. Prometheus stores time‑series data using which format? A) Relational tables B) Flat files in JSON C) In‑memory TSDB with on‑disk snapshots D) NoSQL document store Answer: C Explanation: Prometheus uses a custom on‑disk time‑series database optimized for fast reads and writes. Question 31. The ELK stack consists of Elasticsearch, Logstash, and ? A) Kibana B) Kafka
C) Kubernetes D) Grafana Answer: A Explanation: Kibana provides visualization and dashboard capabilities for data stored in Elasticsearch. Question 32. Distributed tracing tools like Jaeger help teams to: A) Store logs in a centralized index B) Visualize the path of a request across microservices C) Perform static code analysis D) Automate container image builds Answer: B Explanation: Jaeger tracks request flows across services, aiding in latency debugging. Question 33. An SLO (Service Level Objective) is: A) A contractual penalty for missed SLAs B) A target value for a specific service metric (e.g., 99.9% availability) C) The same as a security policy D) A method for encrypting data at rest Answer: B Explanation: SLOs define measurable performance goals that services should meet. Question 34. An error budget is calculated as: A) The total number of bugs allowed per sprint B) The difference between 100% and the SLO target (e.g., 0.1% for 99.9% uptime) C) The amount of time allocated for incident response
D) Elastic Beanstalk Answer: B Explanation: AWS Lambda runs code without provisioning or managing servers. Question 38. For a serverless CI/CD pipeline, which AWS service can be used to store build artifacts? A) S B) RDS C) DynamoDB D) EFS Answer: A Explanation: Amazon S3 is commonly used to store packaged Lambda functions and other artifacts. Question 39. A Content Delivery Network (CDN) primarily improves: A) Database transaction speed B) Static content latency and global availability C) Internal network security policies D) Continuous integration test execution time Answer: B Explanation: CDNs cache content at edge locations, reducing latency for end users. Question 40. When performing a database schema migration in a CI/CD pipeline, the recommended strategy is to: A) Drop the existing database and recreate it on every deployment B) Apply incremental, backward‑compatible changes and use versioned migration scripts C) Never change the schema after the first release
D) Perform migrations manually after deployment Answer: B Explanation: Incremental, versioned migrations (e.g., Flyway, Liquibase) allow safe, repeatable schema evolution. Question 41. DORA metrics include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Lead Time for Changes B) Deployment Frequency C) Mean Time to Restore (MTTR) D) Number of Open Pull Requests Answer: D Explanation: The first three are core DORA metrics; open PR count is not part of DORA. Question 42. In the context of incident response, a “runbook” is: A) A list of all servers in the environment B) A documented set of steps to resolve a specific type of incident C) The source code repository for the application D) A performance benchmark report Answer: B Explanation: Runbooks provide repeatable procedures for handling incidents efficiently. Question 43. Which monitoring tool is known for its “pull‑based” data collection model? A) Datadog B) Prometheus C) Splunk D) New Relic
Explanation: GitHub Actions looks for YAML files under .github/workflows/. Question 47. Which of the following is a key benefit of using a “trunk‑based” development workflow? A) Long‑living feature branches reduce integration complexity B) Frequent merges reduce merge‑conflict risk and enable continuous integration C) Allows developers to work offline for weeks D) Guarantees zero defects in production Answer: B Explanation: Frequent commits to a single trunk keep the codebase integrated and testable. Question 48. A “canary analysis” tool such as Kayenta evaluates: A) The cost of cloud resources after deployment B) Whether the new version meets predefined performance and error thresholds before full rollout C) The number of lines of code changed in a PR D) The security posture of container images Answer: B Explanation: Canary analysis compares metrics between canary and baseline to decide on promotion. Question 49. Which of the following statements about “immutable infrastructure” is true? A) Servers are patched in place after deployment B) Once provisioned, an instance is never modified; updates are made by replacing it with a new instance C) Configuration drift is encouraged to improve flexibility D) It requires manual intervention for every change
Answer: B Explanation: Immutable infrastructure treats servers as replaceable units, eliminating drift. Question 50. In Kubernetes, a ConfigMap is used to: A) Store binary secrets B) Store non‑confidential configuration data as key‑value pairs C) Define pod security policies D) Manage persistent volumes Answer: B Explanation: ConfigMaps hold configuration information (e.g., URLs, feature flags) that can be injected into pods as environment variables, command‑line arguments, or files. Question 51. Which Kubernetes object provides a stable DNS name and load‑balancing for a set of Pods? A) Deployment B) Service C) Ingress D) StatefulSet Answer: B Explanation: A Service groups Pods and exposes them via a stable virtual IP and DNS name, optionally providing load‑balancing. Question 52. An Ingress resource in Kubernetes primarily handles: A) Persistent storage provisioning B) Internal cluster networking between Pods C) HTTP/HTTPS routing from outside the cluster to Services D) Automatic scaling of Deployments Answer: C
Answer: B Explanation: Push‑based tools (e.g., Ansible) have the controller connect to nodes via SSH and push configurations. Question 56. The principle of “Infrastructure immutability” encourages: A) Patching live servers in place B) Replacing entire instances rather than modifying them after provisioning C) Allowing manual changes by on‑call engineers D) Storing configuration files on shared network drives Answer: B Explanation: Immutable infrastructure treats resources as disposable; updates are performed by provisioning new instances. Question 57. Which AWS service is the native equivalent of Terraform’s state backend for storing IaC state? A) Amazon RDS B) Amazon S3 with DynamoDB locking C) AWS CloudTrail D) AWS Config Answer: B Explanation: Storing Terraform state in S3 combined with DynamoDB for state locking is a common AWS pattern. Question 58. In a CI pipeline, the “gate” concept is best described as: A) A manual approval step that must be completed before proceeding B) An automated test that blocks deployment if it fails C) A metric that measures build duration
D) A version control branch used for releases Answer: B Explanation: Gates are automated checks (e.g., security scans, unit tests) that must pass before the pipeline can advance. Question 59. Which of the following is NOT a typical stage in a CI/CD pipeline? A) Source checkout B) Build C) Deploy to production D) Incident postmortem analysis Answer: D Explanation: Postmortems occur after incidents, not as a pipeline stage. Question 60. A “blue/green” deployment reduces risk mainly because: A) It updates all servers simultaneously B) It keeps the previous version running and can instantly revert by switching traffic C) It requires no testing before release D) It eliminates the need for load balancers Answer: B Explanation: Blue/green keeps the old environment live; traffic can be switched back instantly if problems arise. Question 61. Which deployment strategy is most suitable for testing a new feature with only 5 % of users? A) Rolling update B) Blue/green C) Canary release
