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Question 1. Which bone is primarily responsible for forming the posterior part of the nasal septum? A) Ethmoid bone B) Vomer C) Sphenoid bone D) Palatine bone Answer: B Explanation: The vomer forms the inferior and posterior part of the nasal septum, contributing to the separation of the nasal cavity. Question 2. Which type of muscle contraction occurs when muscle length remains unchanged while generating force? A) Isotonic B) Isometric C) Isokinetic D) Concentric Answer: B Explanation: Isometric contractions involve muscle activation without change in length, such as holding a plank. Question 3. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for innervating the diaphragm? A) Vagus nerve (CN X) B) Phrenic nerve (C3-C5) C) Accessory nerve (CN XI)
D) Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) Answer: B Explanation: The phrenic nerve originates from cervical spinal nerves C3-C5 and supplies motor innervation to the diaphragm. Question 4. During the cardiac cycle, the phase where the ventricles contract and pump blood into the arteries is called: A) Diastole B) Systole C) Isovolumetric relaxation D) Ventricular filling Answer: B Explanation: Systole is the phase of ventricular contraction during which blood is ejected into the arteries. Question 5. Which lung volume represents the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inhalation? A) Tidal volume B) Inspiratory reserve volume C) Vital capacity D) Residual volume Answer: C Explanation: Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air expelled after a maximum inhalation, encompassing tidal volume, inspiratory, and expiratory reserve volumes.
D) Fatty infiltration Answer: D Explanation: Fatty infiltration involves accumulation of lipid within cells, often seen in liver cells during steatosis. Question 9. Which of the following is a common feature of osteoarthritis? A) Symmetrical joint involvement B) Erosions of cartilage with subchondral sclerosis C) Systemic inflammation D) Morning stiffness lasting more than an hour Answer: B Explanation: Osteoarthritis features cartilage degeneration with subchondral sclerosis, osteophyte formation, and joint space narrowing. Question 10. A patient with a stroke exhibiting weakness on one side of the body most likely has a lesion in which hemisphere? A) Contralateral hemisphere B) Ipsilateral hemisphere C) Brainstem D) Cerebellum Answer: A Explanation: Motor control pathways cross in the brainstem, so a stroke affecting one hemisphere causes weakness on the opposite side.
Question 11. What is the primary physiological role of the sinoatrial (SA) node? A) To facilitate atrioventricular conduction B) To act as the heart’s natural pacemaker C) To delay conduction to the ventricles D) To coordinate ventricular contraction Answer: B Explanation: The SA node generates electrical impulses that set the pace of the heartbeat, acting as the heart's pacemaker. Question 12. Which respiratory muscle is the primary driver of inspiration? A) Internal intercostals B) Diaphragm C) External obliques D) Rectus abdominis Answer: B Explanation: The diaphragm is the main muscle responsible for inspiration, contracting to increase thoracic volume. Question 13. Which component of the immune system is primarily responsible for antibody production? A) T lymphocytes B) B lymphocytes C) Macrophages D) Neutrophils
Question 16. Which neurological condition is characterized by demyelination of central nervous system fibers? A) Multiple sclerosis B) Guillain-Barré syndrome C) Peripheral neuropathy D) Parkinson's disease Answer: A Explanation: Multiple sclerosis involves immune-mediated demyelination of CNS axons, leading to neurological deficits. Question 17. Which of the following is a common cause of ischemic heart disease? A) Atherosclerotic plaque formation in coronary arteries B) Hemorrhage into the myocardium C) Vasospasm of cerebral arteries D) Valve stenosis Answer: A Explanation: Atherosclerosis in coronary arteries reduces blood flow, leading to ischemic heart disease. Question 18. Which condition involves chronic airflow limitation with reversible airway obstruction? A) COPD B) Asthma C) Pneumonia
D) Fibrosis Answer: B Explanation: Asthma is characterized by reversible airway obstruction, often triggered by allergens or irritants. Question 19. Which systemic condition is most closely associated with connective tissue disorders such as Marfan syndrome? A) Osteoarthritis B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D) Gout Answer: C Explanation: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a connective tissue disorder involving abnormal collagen, similar to Marfan syndrome's connective tissue abnormalities. Question 20. Which drug class is commonly used to reduce inflammation and pain in musculoskeletal conditions? A) NSAIDs B) Antibiotics C) Anticoagulants D) Beta-blockers Answer: A Explanation: NSAIDs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) are widely used to reduce pain and inflammation.
D) Supraspinatus Answer: D Explanation: The supraspinatus initiates shoulder abduction, especially the first 15 degrees, before the deltoid takes over. Question 24. Which type of joint is the sacroiliac joint classified as? A) Synovial hinge B) Synovial saddle C) Synovial plane (gliding) D) Fibrous syndesmosis Answer: C Explanation: The sacroiliac joint is a synovial plane (gliding) joint allowing limited movement. Question 25. Which nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh? A) Femoral nerve B) Obturator nerve C) Sciatic nerve D) Superior gluteal nerve Answer: A Explanation: The femoral nerve supplies the anterior thigh muscles, including quadriceps femoris. Question 26. Which part of the neuron is responsible for integrating incoming signals and initiating an action potential?
A) Dendrites B) Soma (cell body) C) Axon hillock D) Axon terminals Answer: C Explanation: The axon hillock integrates synaptic inputs and generates action potentials if threshold is reached. Question 27. Which phase of wound healing involves the formation of new tissue and collagen deposition? A) Inflammatory phase B) Proliferative (fibroblastic) phase C) Maturation (remodeling) phase D) Hemostasis Answer: B Explanation: The proliferative phase involves granulation tissue formation, angiogenesis, and collagen deposition. Question 28. Which of the following is a common feature of rheumatoid arthritis? A) Symmetrical joint involvement B) Erosions limited to cartilage C) Presence of tophi D) Night pain relieved by activity Answer: A
B) Tibialis anterior C) Soleus D) Peroneus longus Answer: B Explanation: The tibialis anterior is the main dorsiflexor of the ankle, lifting the foot upwards. Question 32. What is the main function of the myelin sheath in neurons? A) To facilitate nerve impulse conduction B) To provide nutrients C) To protect the neuron from injury D) To generate action potentials Answer: A Explanation: The myelin sheath insulates axons, increasing conduction velocity of nerve impulses. Question 33. Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis? A) Age B) Smoking C) Sedentary lifestyle D) Excessive alcohol intake Answer: A Explanation: Age is a non-modifiable risk factor; bone density decreases naturally with aging.
Question 34. Which of the following is a common sign of nerve root compression on physical examination? A) Dermatomal sensory loss B) Symmetrical reflexes C) Bilateral muscle weakness D) Absence of pain Answer: A Explanation: Nerve root compression often causes dermatomal sensory deficits corresponding to the affected nerve. Question 35. Which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting soft tissue injuries such as ligament tears? A) X-ray B) MRI C) CT scan D) Ultrasound Answer: B Explanation: MRI provides excellent soft tissue contrast, making it ideal for ligament, tendon, and muscle injuries. Question 36. Which laboratory marker is commonly elevated in inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis? A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) B) Blood glucose
Question 39. Which of the following manual therapy techniques involves applying sustained or oscillatory movements to joint surfaces? A) Soft tissue mobilization B) Joint mobilization C) Neural mobilization D) Myofascial release Answer: B Explanation: Joint mobilization involves passive movements within the joint's physiological range to improve mobility. Question 40. Which modality uses sound waves to promote tissue healing and reduce pain? A) Ultrasound B) TENS C) Laser therapy D) Cryotherapy Answer: A Explanation: Therapeutic ultrasound uses high-frequency sound waves to enhance healing and reduce pain. Question 41. Which breathing technique is primarily used to improve diaphragmatic breathing? A) Pursed-lip breathing B) Segmental breathing C) Diaphragmatic (belly) breathing D) Huffing
Answer: C Explanation: Diaphragmatic breathing focuses on deep breathing using the diaphragm to improve ventilation efficiency. Question 42. Which neuroplasticity principle is most relevant in neurorehabilitation? A) Use-dependent plasticity B) Structural plasticity C) Synaptic pruning D) Myelination Answer: A Explanation: Use-dependent plasticity emphasizes that repetitive activity promotes neural reorganization and recovery. Question 43. Which age-related change most significantly impacts balance in elderly patients? A) Decreased muscle strength B) Increased bone density C) Enhanced proprioception D) Improved vision Answer: A Explanation: Loss of muscle strength (sarcopenia) is a key factor contributing to balance deficits in older adults. Question 44. Which pelvic floor muscle condition involves involuntary leakage of urine during increased abdominal pressure?
Answer: C Explanation: A walker provides maximum support and weight-bearing restriction, suitable for severe lower limb impairments. Question 47. Which communication skill is essential for effective patient education in physiotherapy? A) Active listening B) Multitasking C) Use of complex medical jargon D) Avoiding feedback Answer: A Explanation: Active listening ensures understanding of patient concerns, enhancing education and adherence. Question 48. Which ethical principle requires physiotherapists to prioritize patient welfare and avoid harm? A) Autonomy B) Beneficence C) Justice D) Veracity Answer: B Explanation: Beneficence involves acting in the best interest of the patient to promote well- being and prevent harm.
Question 49. In the context of legal practice, which document is essential for recording consent prior to treatment? A) SOAP note B) Patient chart C) Informed consent form D) Prescription Answer: C Explanation: An informed consent form documents that the patient understands and agrees to treatment, fulfilling ethical and legal requirements. Question 50. Which of the following best describes evidence-based practice? A) Relying solely on clinical experience B) Using the latest research without considering patient preferences C) Integrating research evidence, clinical expertise, and patient values D) Following traditional methods regardless of evidence Answer: C Explanation: EBP combines best current research, clinician experience, and patient preferences for optimal care. Question 51. Which ligament stabilizes the anterior aspect of the knee joint and is most commonly injured in sports? A) Posterior cruciate ligament B) Medial collateral ligament C) Anterior cruciate ligament
