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Question 1. Which Part of the Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs) specifically governs domestic scheduled airline operations? A) Part 91 B) Part 121 C) Part 135 D) Part 141 Answer: B Explanation: Part 121 contains the rules for scheduled air carriers operating domestic, flag, and supplemental services. Question 2. Under Part 91, which of the following is true regarding pilot certification for a flight that is also a Part 121 operation? A) Part 91 rules are always superseded by Part 121 rules. B) Part 91 rules apply only if the aircraft is not a commercial airliner. C) The pilot must comply with the more stringent of the two sets of rules. D) Part 91 rules are irrelevant for Part 121 flights. Answer: C Explanation: When an operation falls under multiple parts, the pilot must follow the more restrictive requirements. Question 3. According to §61.15, what is the minimum time after a positive alcohol test before a pilot may return to duty? A) 24 hours B) 48 hours C) 72 hours D) 96 hours Answer: D
Explanation: A pilot who tests positive for alcohol must wait at least 96 hours (four days) before returning to duty. Question 4. Which of the following is a mandatory reporting requirement for pilots under the alcohol and drug policy? A) Reporting a failed breathalyzer test only to the airline. B) Reporting any refusal to submit to testing to the FAA. C) Reporting a positive test to the airline and FAA within 24 hours. D) No reporting is required if the pilot self-discloses. Answer: C Explanation: Pilots must report a positive alcohol or drug test to both their airline and the FAA within 24 hours. Question 5. How long is a Temporary Certificate of Waiver valid for a new pilot awaiting a full medical? A) 30 days B) 60 days C) 90 days D) 180 days Answer: B Explanation: A temporary certificate is valid for up to 60 days, after which a full medical must be obtained. Question 6. Which class of medical certificate is required for a First Officer on a Part 121 aircraft operating under IFR? A) Class 1 B) Class 2 C) Class 3 D) No medical required if the pilot holds a student certificate.
D) Weight-and-balance logs for each flight Answer: D Explanation: Weight-and-balance logs are kept with the aircraft’s records, not in the individual training folder. Question 10. What is the primary purpose of the “Standardized Terminology” section in the GOM? A) To reduce radio traffic at busy airports. B) To ensure consistent communication between crew and dispatch. C) To comply with ICAO language requirements. D) To allow pilots to use slang for quicker communication. Answer: B Explanation: Standardized terminology minimizes misunderstandings and ensures clear communication. Question 11. According to the EFB policy, what must a crew do if the primary EFB fails during flight? A) Continue using the failed device as a backup. B) Switch to the paper flight bag and complete the flight. C) Activate the secondary EFB and verify data integrity. D) Land at the nearest airport immediately. Answer: C Explanation: The policy requires using the designated backup EFB and confirming that its data matches the primary. Question 12. Which jumpseat priority level grants the highest access to the flight deck? A) Company crew member (non-flight) B) Off-airline (OAL) crew member
C) Airline’s own flight crew on duty D) Passenger with a jumpseat ticket Answer: C Explanation: Airline flight crew members have the highest priority for jumpseat access. Question 13. A flight release must contain all of the following EXCEPT: A) Current METAR for the departure airport B) Pilot’s personal schedule for the day C) NOTAMs affecting the route D) Aircraft tail number and registration Answer: B Explanation: The pilot’s personal schedule is not a required element of the flight release. Question 14. Under the “Marginal Rule,” when is a second alternate airport required? A) When the forecast at the primary destination is below VFR minima. B) When the probability of receiving the required weather at the primary is less than 50 %. C) When the forecast at the primary is marginal for the required approach. D) When the flight is longer than 5 hours. Answer: C Explanation: A second alternate is required if the destination weather is marginal for the required approach. Question 15. Minimum take-off fuel for a CRJ consists of the sum of all the following EXCEPT: A) Taxi fuel
A) V₁
B) V₂
C) V_R
D) V_LO
Answer: A Explanation: V₁ is the decision speed; beyond this point a takeoff must continue. Question 19. For a CRJ, the V₂ speed is primarily used for: A) Initial climb after rotation. B) The speed to maintain during the landing flare. C) The minimum safe climb speed after engine failure. D) The speed at which the landing gear may be retracted. Answer: C Explanation: V₂ provides a safety margin for climb performance with one engine inoperative. Question 20. The Maximum Operating Altitude (MOA) for a CRJ-200 is: A) 31,000 ft B) 35,000 ft C) 39,000 ft D) 41,000 ft Answer: B Explanation: The CRJ- 200 ’s certified maximum operating altitude is 35,000 ft. Question 21. Which temperature condition requires the activation of engine anti-ice on a CRJ? A) Ambient temperature below +10 °C with visible moisture.
B) Ambient temperature between +5 °C and +15 °C with any moisture. C) Ambient temperature at or below +5 °C with visible moisture. D) Any temperature when precipitation is forecast. Answer: C Explanation: Anti-ice must be turned on when the ambient temperature is ≤ +5 °C and moisture is present. Question 22. “Visible moisture” in the context of icing operations is defined as: A) Any precipitation observed in the clouds. B) Moisture that can be seen on the aircraft’s windshield or pitot-static probes. C) Only rain that is visible from the cockpit. D) Moisture detected only by onboard ice detection sensors. Answer: B Explanation: Visible moisture refers to moisture that pilots can see on the windshield, probes, or other external surfaces. Question 23. Which of the following items is prohibited in the cargo compartment according to HAZMAT regulations? A) Small lithium-ion batteries in carry-on bags. B) Compressed oxygen cylinders. C) Flammable liquids in a sealed container. D) Fire extinguishers rated for Class B fires. Answer: B Explanation: Pressurized oxygen cylinders are prohibited in the cargo compartment on commercial aircraft. Question 24. The “NOTOC” (Notification to Captain) is required when:
Question 27. During a water evacuation, which command is used to initiate the deployment of life rafts? A) “Brace, brace!” B) “Evacuate, overboard!” C) “Deploy rafts, now!” D) “Life rafts, inflate!” Answer: D Explanation: “Life rafts, inflate!” is the standard command to activate the inflation system. Question 28. The sterile cockpit rule applies to which phases of flight? A) From engine start to taxi, and from landing roll to shutdown. B) From takeoff to initial climb, and from final approach to landing. C) From engine start to 10 000 ft AGL, and from 10 000 ft AGL to landing. D) From engine start to 10 000 ft AGL, and from 10 000 ft AGL to landing. Answer: D Explanation: Non-essential conversation is prohibited below 10 000 ft and during the approach/landing phase. Question 29. Which of the following is a “challenge-verify-respond” element of checklist philosophy? A) Reading the checklist verbatim and performing the action. B) Verifying that the aircraft is already in the correct configuration before acting. C) Delegating checklist items to the first officer without verification. D) Using a “read-and-do” approach for all items. Answer: B Explanation: “Challenge-verify-respond” requires the crew to challenge the item, verify its status, then respond accordingly.
**Question 30. According to Part 117, what is the maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) for a pilot who starts duty at 0600 LT with three flight segments? ** A) 10 hours B) 12 hours C) 14 hours D) 16 hours Answer: C Explanation: With a start time between 0500- 0800 LT and three segments, the FDP limit is 14 hours. Question 31. How many consecutive hours of uninterrupted sleep are required for a mandatory rest period under Part 117? A) 6 hours B) 7 hours C) 8 hours D) 9 hours Answer: C Explanation: The regulation mandates at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep for a qualified rest period. Question 32. The 168-hour look-back period in duty-time regulations is used to limit: A) Total flight time in a calendar week. B. Cumulative duty time over seven days. C) Number of take-offs per month. D) Total rest periods taken. Answer: B
Answer: A Explanation: The standard callout is “Glide slope captured” to confirm both lateral and vertical guidance are engaged. Question 36. Stabilized approach criteria at 1,000 ft AGL for a commercial jet include all EXCEPT: A) Airspeed within 5 kt of target. B) Rate of descent less than 1,000 ft/min. C) Landing gear retracted. D) Flaps in the final approach configuration. Answer: C Explanation: Landing gear must be extended for the final approach; retraction would be unsafe. Question 37. Which of the following is NOT a standard item required in a pre-flight checklist for a CRJ? A) Verify Flight Management System (FMS) database. B) Check cabin pressurization system. C) Verify the presence of a fire extinguisher in the flight deck. D) Confirm the availability of the flight crew’s personal laptops. Answer: D Explanation: Personal laptops are not a required item on the aircraft’s pre-flight checklist. Question 38. Under the company’s communication protocol, the phrase “Wilco” means: A) I will comply with the request. B) Received and understood. C) I cannot comply.
D) Repeat the last transmission. Answer: B Explanation: “Wilco” is short for “Will comply,” indicating the message was received and understood. Question 39. Which of the following weather phenomena requires a NOTAM to be issued as a “Pointer” rather than an “Alpha”? A) Runway surface contamination with snow. B) A temporary obstruction on the taxiway. C) A wind shear alert for the approach path. D) A closed runway due to construction. Answer: B Explanation: “Pointer” NOTAMs indicate minor, non-critical information such as temporary obstructions. Question 40. The required fuel reserve for a VFR flight that includes a planned 30-minute hold at the destination is: A) 30 minutes of fuel at cruise consumption. B) 45 minutes of fuel at cruise consumption. C) 20 minutes of fuel at cruise consumption. D) 60 minutes of fuel at cruise consumption. Answer: A Explanation: VFR fuel rules require enough fuel to reach the destination, then hold for 30 minutes, plus alternate if required. Question 41. Which crosswind component is the maximum allowed for takeoff on a CRJ-700? A) 15 kt B) 20 kt
A) A
B) A
C) A
D) A
Answer: C Explanation: “A3” indicates a runway condition that may affect aircraft performance, such as braking. Question 45. Which of the following is NOT a standard emergency equipment item required on a CRJ? A) Portable fire extinguisher in the forward cabin. B) Two-person life vests for each passenger. C) Emergency slide for all doors. D) Automatic external defibrillator (AED). Answer: C Explanation: CRJs are equipped with evacuation slides only on the main doors; not all doors have slides. Question 46. During a water ditching, which command is NOT part of the evacuation sequence? A) “Brace for impact.” B) “Don life jackets.” C) “Open exits and deploy slides.” D) “Remain seated until the aircraft stops.” Answer: C Explanation: Slides cannot be deployed on water; the command is to open exits and deploy rafts, not slides.
Question 47. Which of the following statements about “unruly passengers” is correct according to company policy? A) The pilot may physically restrain a passenger without notifying the cabin crew. B) The flight crew must notify the captain immediately, who then contacts ATC. C) The situation is handled solely by the cabin crew after landing. D) Unruly behavior only requires a written report after the flight. Answer: B Explanation: The captain must be informed immediately, and the crew follows the prescribed escalation procedure, including ATC notification if needed. Question 48. The crew’s primary duty when a hazardous material is discovered in the cabin is to: A) Attempt to remove it themselves. B) Continue the flight and report at the destination. C) Isolate the area and notify the captain for further action. D) Throw the item overboard. Answer: C Explanation: Isolation and immediate notification to the captain are required to ensure safety. Question 49. In CRM, the “Closed-Loop Communication” technique includes which of the following steps? A) Command – Execute – Acknowledge B. Send – Wait – Repeat C) Call – Response – Confirmation – Close D) Question – Answer – Follow-up
D) The runway length of the second alternate. Answer: D Explanation: Runway length is not a mandatory element; weather and fuel are required. Question 53. The “take-off alternate” requirement is triggered when: A. The runway length at the destination is less than the required take-off distance. B. The forecast weather at the destination does not meet the required minima for the planned approach. C. The aircraft weight exceeds the maximum take-off weight. D. The destination airport is closed for maintenance. Answer: B Explanation: A take-off alternate is required when the destination weather does not support the intended approach. Question 54. Which V-speed is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted after takeoff? A) V₁ B) V₂ C) V_R D) V_LO Answer: D Explanation: V_LO (Landing Gear Operating Speed) is the maximum speed for gear retraction. Question 55. During the “final approach” phase, which of the following is a prohibited activity under the sterile cockpit rule? A) Discussing the aircraft’s fuel status.
B) Verifying the landing checklist. C) Talking about weekend plans. D) Confirming the approach clearance. Answer: C Explanation: Non-essential conversation, such as personal plans, is prohibited. Question 56. The correct procedure for handling a “EIE” (Entered in Error) on a maintenance log is to: A) Erase the entry with correction fluid. B) Draw a single line through the entry, initial, and date the correction. C) Delete the entry electronically and submit a new log. D) Leave the entry as is and add a note in the margin. Answer: B Explanation: The standard method is to strike through, initial, and date the correction. Question 57. Which of the following best describes the “Margin Rule” for alternate airports? A) The destination weather must be better than the alternate’s weather. B) The alternate must be within 100 nm of the destination. C) The alternate must have weather at least 2 °C better than the destination. D) The alternate must be usable within 30 minutes of the estimated time of arrival. Answer: D Explanation: The margin rule requires that the alternate be reachable within 30 minutes of the ETA.
