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Question 1. Which FAR part specifically governs scheduled air carrier operations? A) Part 121 B) Part 135 C) Part 91 D) Part 125 Answer: A Explanation: Part 121 contains the regulations for scheduled passenger airlines, defining crew qualifications, operational procedures, and safety requirements. Question 2. Under the chain of command, who has the ultimate authority for the safety of the flight? A) First Officer B) Flight Attendant in charge C) Pilot in Command (PIC) D) Chief Purser Answer: C Explanation: The PIC is the final authority for all safety and operational decisions on the aircraft. Question 3. According to FAA alcohol regulations, how many hours must elapse between the consumption of alcohol and reporting for duty? A) 6 hours B) 8 hours C) 12 hours D) 24 hours Answer: B Explanation: The “8-hour rule” (also called the “bottle-to-cockpit” rule) requires an 8 - hour interval between the last drink and duty.
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Question 4. What is the minimum crew complement for an aircraft with 150 passenger seats? A) 2 Flight Attendants B) 3 Flight Attendants C) 4 Flight Attendants D) 5 Flight Attendants Answer: B Explanation: The rule is 1 FA per 50 seats; 150 seats ÷ 50 = 3 FAs. Question 5. Which document must be completed before a crew member is allowed on the flight deck for a non-flight-deck crew member? A) Form 337 B) Form 110A C) Form 337A D) Form 8100 Answer: B Explanation: Form 110A is used by FAA inspectors to record non-flight-deck personnel access to the cockpit. Question 6. The Cockpit Access Security System (CASS) is primarily intended to: A) Record crew duty hours B) Prevent unauthorized entry to the flight deck C) Monitor cabin temperature D) Control passenger boarding Answer: B Explanation: CASS provides a physical and electronic barrier to restrict cockpit access to authorized personnel only. Question 7. What is the definition of a “sterile flight deck”? A) No communication with ATC allowed
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C) 48 hours D) 72 hours Answer: C Explanation: The FAA mandates that safety reports be filed within 48 hours of the event. Question 11. Where is the primary fire extinguisher located on a typical narrow-body aircraft? A) In the galley near the forward door B) In the forward cargo compartment C) In the flight deck overhead panel D) In the aft cabin near the rear door Answer: B Explanation: The main fire extinguisher is stored in the forward cargo compartment for quick access in case of fire. Question 12. Which piece of equipment is used to inflate a personal breathing equipment (PBE) mask? A) Manual pull-handle B) Automatic pressure switch C) Electric pump D) Chemical oxygen generator Answer: A Explanation: The PBE mask is inflated by pulling a manual handle that releases the stored oxygen. Question 13. The Universal Precaution Kit (UPK) is primarily intended to protect against: A) Chemical spills B) Bloodborne pathogens
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C) Fire hazards D) Turbulence injuries Answer: B Explanation: UPK contains gloves, antiseptic wipes, and other items to prevent exposure to bloodborne pathogens. Question 14. When operating an AED, which rhythm should be treated with a shock? A) Normal sinus rhythm B) Asystole C) Ventricular fibrillation D) Atrial flutter Answer: C Explanation: Ventricular fibrillation is a shock-able rhythm; the AED will advise a shock when detected. Question 15. The cabin oxygen system that provides oxygen via chemical reaction is known as: A) Gaseous system B) Chemical system C) Portable system D) Regenerative system Answer: B Explanation: Chemical oxygen generators produce oxygen through a chemical reaction, typically used for passenger oxygen masks. Question 16. What is the recommended flow rate for gaseous oxygen administered to a passenger with hypoxia? A) 2 L/min B) 4 L/min
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Answer: D Explanation: Level 4 specifically denotes an attempted breach of the flight deck. Question 20. The most effective de-escalation technique when faced with an angry passenger is: A) Raising your voice to assert authority B) Ignoring the passenger completely C) Using active listening and calm verbal reassurance D) Physically restraining the passenger immediately Answer: C Explanation: Active listening and calm communication help reduce tension and resolve conflicts peacefully. Question 21. Which of the following items is prohibited as a hidden dangerous good on a commercial flight? A) A travel pillow B) A lithium-ion battery in checked baggage C) A paperback novel D) A reusable water bottle Answer: B Explanation: Lithium-ion batteries are restricted in checked baggage due to fire risk and must be declared. Question 22. During a security search, an unattended bag found in the cabin should be: A) Ignored if no one claims it B) Handed to the nearest passenger for inspection C) Secured and reported to the flight deck immediately D) Placed in the galley for storage Answer: C
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Explanation: Unattended baggage poses a security threat and must be secured and reported to the flight deck. Question 23. The Breeze “Nice” culture emphasizes which primary guest interaction principle? A) Strict adherence to script without deviation B) Personalized service with genuine friendliness C) Minimal conversation to reduce workload D) Aggressive upselling of products Answer: B Explanation: “Nice” culture focuses on genuine, personalized friendliness toward passengers. Question 24. Which FA position is responsible for opening the forward main door during boarding? A) FA B) FA C) FA D) FA Answer: A Explanation: FA1 is assigned to the forward main door and leads the boarding process. Question 25. The three-point briefing for a passenger with a disability must include: A) Seat location, meal options, and Wi-Fi password B) Emergency exit location, evacuation assistance, and equipment usage C) Flight duration, fuel consumption, and crew schedules D) In-flight entertainment, duty-free prices, and baggage claim information Answer: B
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Explanation: “Inboard” describes a position nearer the aircraft’s longitudinal axis (centerline). Question 29. A flashing green call light in the cabin indicates: A) Guest request for service B) Crew-only communication C) Emergency situation D) Cabin temperature alert Answer: B Explanation: Flashing green signals a crew-only message, such as a request for assistance from another crew member. Question 30. A single “Hi-Lo” chime signals: A) Seat belt sign turned on B) Arrival at gate C) Turbulence warning D) Cabin crew call for assistance Answer: A Explanation: One “Hi-Lo” chime is the auditory cue for the seat-belt sign activation. Question 31. When a cabin door is opened for an emergency evacuation, the slide will: A) Deploy automatically in all cases B) Deploy only if the handle is pulled in a specific sequence C) Remain retracted until an external command is given D) Deploy only after the aircraft reaches 200 ft AGL Answer: B Explanation: Slides deploy when the door handle is pulled in a prescribed manner, initiating the slide mechanism.
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Question 32. The minimum distance a crew member must maintain from a fire before using an oxygen bottle is: A) 5 ft B) 10 ft C) 15 ft D) 20 ft Answer: B Explanation: FAA regulation requires at least 10 ft separation between oxygen equipment and an open fire. Question 33. After scuba diving, a crew member must wait how many hours before operating an aircraft? A) 12 hours B) 18 hours C) 24 hours D) 36 hours Answer: C Explanation: The FAA mandates a 24-hour wait after scuba diving to avoid decompression illness. Question 34. The required waiting period after donating blood before flying is: A) 24 hours B) 48 hours C) 72 hours D) 96 hours Answer: C Explanation: A minimum of 72 hours is required after blood donation to ensure the donor’s health. Question 35. The altitude threshold that defines the “sterile flight deck” is:
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A) Chemical oxygen masks for passengers only B) Gaseous oxygen from the flight deck supply C) No oxygen; focus on fire suppression only D) Portable oxygen cylinders stored in the galley Answer: B Explanation: The flight deck’s gaseous oxygen system provides high-flow oxygen for crew use during emergencies. Question 39. The most appropriate response when a passenger refuses to wear a seat belt during turbulence is: A) Ignore the passenger until turbulence passes B) Use physical force to restrain them C) Explain the safety risk calmly and request compliance D) Offer them a beverage to distract them Answer: C Explanation: Calmly explaining the risk and requesting compliance follows safety protocols without escalation. Question 40. Which of the following is a required element of the pre-flight inspection of emergency equipment? A) Verifying the expiration date of the fire extinguisher B) Checking the color of the cabin carpet C) Counting the number of passenger seats D) Measuring cabin temperature Answer: A Explanation: Emergency equipment must be inspected for serviceability, including checking fire extinguisher expiration dates. Question 41. The FAA’s “24-hour rule” for alcohol also applies to: A) Use of nicotine products
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B) Consumption of over-the-counter medication C) Use of prescription medication that causes impairment D) Eating a heavy meal before duty Answer: C Explanation: The 24-hour rule extends to any substance that could impair performance, including certain prescription medications. Question 42. In Breeze’s “Serious, Nice, and Safe” mission, the “Serious” component primarily addresses: A) Guest entertainment options B) Security and threat management C) In-flight meal quality D) Crew uniform standards Answer: B Explanation: “Serious” focuses on security, threat identification, and maintaining a safe environment. Question 43. Which of the following is the correct order of turbulence classifications from least to most severe? A) Imminent, Expected, Impending B) Expected, Impending, Imminent C) Impending, Expected, Imminent D) Expected, Imminent, Impending Answer: B Explanation: Expected (forecast), Impending (detected), Imminent (about to occur) is the correct progression. Question 44. When a crew member discovers a suspicious liquid in an unattended bag, the first action should be: A) Open the bag and examine the contents
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D) Seat belt sign deactivation Answer: B Explanation: Two “Hi-Lo” chimes are used to indicate arrival at the gate. Question 48. Which of the following is considered a Level 2 threat? A) A passenger loudly arguing with a crew member B) A passenger attempting to open the cockpit door C) A passenger brandishing a weapon D) A passenger refusing to comply with a seat-belt sign Answer: A Explanation: Level 2 (Aggressive) includes disruptive behavior such as loud arguments. Question 49. The primary purpose of a “Manual Pull-Handle” on a passenger oxygen mask is to: A) Activate the cabin pressure equalization system B) Release stored oxygen for mask inflation C) Deploy the evacuation slide D) Turn off the cabin lights Answer: B Explanation: Pulling the handle releases the stored oxygen, inflating the mask. Question 50. Which of the following statements about the Flight Attendant Manual (FAM) is correct? A) It only needs to be updated annually. B) It must be accessible to all crew members at all times. C) It is optional for Part 121 operators. D) It is stored in the aircraft’s cargo compartment. Answer: B
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Explanation: The FAM must be readily available to crew for reference during operations. Question 51. The FAA requires that crew members complete a drug test: A) Only after an accident occurs B) Randomly, with no set frequency C) At least once every 12 months for Part 121 operators D) Every 6 months for all airline personnel Answer: C Explanation: Part 121 operators must conduct at least annual random drug testing for crew. Question 52. During a cabin depressurization event, the first action for the flight attendant is to: A) Open the forward door to equalize pressure B) Deploy the emergency slide immediately C) Secure the cabin, advise passengers to use oxygen masks, and assist with donning D) Turn off all cabin lighting Answer: C Explanation: The crew must ensure passengers are using oxygen masks and maintain cabin safety. Question 53. The correct flow rate for chemical oxygen masks used by passengers is: A) 2 L/min B) 4 L/min C) 6 L/min D) 8 L/min Answer: B
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Explanation: Loose lithium-metal batteries are prohibited due to fire risk. Question 57. The “three-point briefing” must be repeated if: A) The passenger changes seats during flight B) The flight is delayed more than two hours C) The passenger’s condition changes during the flight D) The crew member forgets a step Answer: C Explanation: Any change in the passenger’s condition requires an updated briefing to ensure safety. Question 58. In the context of Breeze service standards, “POS” stands for: A) Passenger Operating System B) Point-of-Sale C) Pilot-On-Seat D) Pressure-On-Safety Answer: B Explanation: POS refers to the system used for processing sales of food, beverages, and duty-free items. Question 59. Which of the following is the correct definition of “aft”? A) Towards the front of the aircraft B) Towards the rear of the aircraft C) On the left side of the aircraft D) On the right side of the aircraft Answer: B Explanation: “Aft” designates the rearward portion of the aircraft.
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Question 60. The call light color that indicates a crew-only request for assistance is: A) Steady blue B) Flashing green C) Flashing red D) Steady red Answer: B Explanation: Flashing green is used for crew-only communications. Question 61. During a severe turbulence encounter, the crew should: A) Serve hot beverages to calm passengers B) Secure all loose items and suspend service C) Open all cabin doors for ventilation D) Increase cabin lighting to full brightness Answer: B Explanation: Securing the cabin and suspending service reduces injury risk. Question 62. The minimum number of flight attendants required on a Boeing 737 - 800 (189 seats) is: A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: C Explanation: 189 ÷ 50 = 3.78, rounded up to 4 FAs. Question 63. Which of the following statements about “CASS” is true? A) It replaces the need for Form 110A. B) It is a biometric access system for the flight deck.
