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Question 1. What is the primary purpose of SkyWest’s “SkyWest Spirit” as described in the corporate culture? A) To outline the company’s profit goals B) To define the airline’s safety procedures C) To embody the values and attitudes expected of every employee D) To list the technical specifications of the fleet Answer: C Explanation: The “SkyWest Spirit” captures the core values and attitudes that all employees are expected to exhibit, reinforcing culture and teamwork. Question 2. Which department is primarily responsible for creating the daily flight plan and filing the dispatch release? A) In‑Flight Services B) Flight Operations C) Maintenance D) Human Resources Answer: B Explanation: Flight Operations (Dispatch) produces the flight plan, obtains weather data, and issues the dispatch release. Question 3. According to SkySkyWest uniform standards, a pilot must wear which of the following while on duty? A) Casual jeans and a T‑shirt B) Navy‑blue blazer with the company logo C) Any attire as long as it is clean D) A baseball cap with the airline’s colors Answer: B
Explanation: The prescribed uniform includes a navy‑blue blazer with the SkyWest logo to maintain a professional appearance. Question 4. The “25th of the month” rule for medical certificates requires pilots to submit their medicals by which deadline? A) The 15th of the month preceding the expiration date B) The last day of the month prior to expiration C) The 25th day of the month in which the medical expires D) The 25th day of the month before the medical expires Answer: D Explanation: SkyWest requires pilots to have the medical on file by the 25th of the month before the actual expiration date. Question 5. Which of the following items is NOT considered a credential that must be carried on every flight? A) Company ID badge B) Pilot certificate C) Personal driver’s license D) Passport (if required for international duty) Answer: C Explanation: A driver’s license is not a required credential for flight duties, unlike the company ID, pilot certificate, and passport when needed. Question 6. Under SkyWest’s alcohol policy, what is the minimum “bottle‑to‑throttle” time for pilots? A) 8 hours B) 12 hours
B) 12 hours off‑duty, 8 of which are scheduled for sleep C) 8 hours off‑duty, 6 of which are used for sleep D) 14 hours off‑duty with a 10‑hour nap Answer: B Explanation: The rule requires at least 10 hours off‑duty, of which the crew must have an 8‑hour window to obtain sleep. Question 10. How many consecutive hours of rest are mandatory within any 168‑hour (7‑day) period? A) 24 hours B) 30 hours C) 36 hours D) 48 hours Answer: B Explanation: SkyWest requires a minimum of 30 hours of rest in any 7‑day period to prevent fatigue accumulation. Question 11. When does deadheading time count toward Flight Duty Period (FDP) rather than duty time? A) When the pilot is seated in a passenger seat on a commercial flight B) When the pilot is on a non‑revenue positioning flight with crew duty status C) When the pilot is traveling by ground transportation D) When the pilot is on a scheduled layover Answer: B Explanation: Deadheading on a positioning flight while on crew duty is counted as FDP; traveling as a passenger is not.
Question 12. The Reserve Availability Period (RAP) for a SkyWest pilot may not exceed which of the following within a 28‑day window? A) 8 hours B) 12 hours C) 14 hours D) 20 hours Answer: B Explanation: RAP limits are set at 12 hours in any 28‑day period to protect reserve availability. Question 13. Which of the following is a mandatory electronic item pilots must have in the cockpit? A) Personal tablet with social media apps B) Company‑issued EFB with current manuals C) Smartphone with navigation apps only D) Laptop with non‑certified software Answer: B Explanation: A company‑issued Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) containing up‑to‑date manuals is required. Question 14. At the start of duty, the EFB battery must be at least what percentage? A) 20 % B) 40 % C) 60 % D) 80 % Answer: C Explanation: SkyWest requires a minimum of 60 % battery charge before duty begins to ensure availability through the flight.
Question 18. According to SkyWest fuel policy, the minimum contingency fuel is: A) 5 % of trip fuel B) 10 % of trip fuel or 200 lb, whichever is greater C) 15 % of trip fuel D) Fixed 500 lb regardless of trip length Answer: B Explanation: The policy stipulates the larger of 10 % of trip fuel or 200 lb as contingency fuel. Question 19. The “1‑ 2 ‑3 Rule” for alternates requires which of the following? A) Alternate within 1 NM, 2 minutes of flight time, 3 minutes of approach time B) Alternate airport at least 1 hour flight time, 2 hours fuel, 3 hours daylight C) Alternate at least 1 hour from destination, 2 hours of fuel, 3 hours of daylight remaining D) Alternate within 1 hour, 2 hours fuel, 3 hours daylight at departure Answer: C Explanation: The rule calls for an alternate that is at least one hour away, with enough fuel to reach it plus two hours, and daylight for at least three hours. Question 20. When deriving alternate minimums using the “single‑approach” method, which factor is NOT considered? A) Destination runway length B) Alternate runway length C) Required approach visibility D) Aircraft weight at the alternate Answer: A
Explanation: The single‑approach method focuses on the alternate’s runway length, required visibility, and aircraft weight, not the destination runway. Question 21. A captain with less than 100 hours PIC on the CRJ‑700 is restricted from operating flights with a dispatch minimum greater than: A) 1000 ft B) 1500 ft C) 2000 ft D) 2500 ft Answer: B Explanation: SkyWest limits low‑experience captains to a maximum dispatch minimum of 1500 ft. Question 22. A low‑time SIC (Second‑in‑Command) may not be assigned to a flight where the forecasted crosswind exceeds: A) 15 kt B) 20 kt C) 25 kt D) 30 kt Answer: B Explanation: The policy caps crosswinds for low‑time SICs at 20 kt to ensure safety. Question 23. Which standardized signal is used by the flight deck to request cabin crew to “hold the doors closed”? A) “Thumbs up” B) “Three‑finger salute” C) “Hand over heart” D) “Closed fist”
Answer: C Explanation: The GSC oversees ramp security and ensures timely reporting of security concerns. Question 27. In a hijacking scenario, the first action a flight crew should take is to: A) Attempt to physically subdue the hijacker B) Immediately land at the nearest airport C) Follow the airline’s hijack response checklist and inform ATC of a “hijack” squawk D) Turn off all cabin lights Answer: C Explanation: The crew follows the hijack checklist, informs ATC with the appropriate transponder code, and awaits further instructions. Question 28. Which of the following items is classified as a dangerous good that cannot be carried on a SkyWest flight? A) Lithium‑ion batteries over 100 Wh B) Small first‑aid kits C) Personal water bottles D) Prescription medication in original packaging Answer: A Explanation: Lithium‑ion batteries exceeding 100 Wh are prohibited as dangerous goods on passenger aircraft. Question 29. A METAR reporting “RA” indicates: A) Light rain B) Heavy rain C) Snow
D) Rain showers Answer: A Explanation: “RA” in a METAR denotes rain; the intensity is indicated by preceding symbols. Question 30. In a PIREP, the abbreviation “TB” stands for: A) Turbulence, light B) Turbulence, moderate C) Turbulence, severe D) Turbulence, extreme Answer: B Explanation: “TB” in PIREP codes represents moderate turbulence. Question 31. The anti‑ice system must be activated when the aircraft encounters which condition? A) Ambient temperature above +10 °C with visible moisture B) Visible moisture and temperature at or below 0 °C C) Any precipitation regardless of temperature D) Only when climbing above 10 000 ft Answer: B Explanation: Anti‑ice is required when visible moisture exists at temperatures ≤ 0 °C to prevent ice accumulation. Question 32. Runway Visual Range (RVR) below 550 m triggers which of the following? A) Automatic go‑around requirement for all approaches B) Use of the Low‑Visibility Procedures (LVP) and possible SMGCS activation C) Immediate diversion to the nearest alternate
Answer: B Explanation: The CRJ‑ 700 ’s BEW is roughly 22 000 lb, used as the baseline for calculations. Question 36. During the pre‑flight walk‑around, a discrepancy found on the left main landing gear tire pressure must be: A) Logged in the aircraft maintenance log (AML) and cleared by a mechanic before departure B) Ignored if the pressure is within 5 psi of the limit C) Reported to the captain but may be deferred until after arrival D) Fixed by the flight crew using portable inflators Answer: A Explanation: Any tire pressure discrepancy must be recorded in the AML and corrected by maintenance before the flight can depart. Question 37. Which of the following is NOT a required item in the pilot’s personal protective equipment (PPE) for a night flight? A) Flashlight with a fresh battery B) High‑visibility vest C) Noise‑cancelling headphones D) Spare corrective lenses (if needed) Answer: C Explanation: While headsets are required, noise‑cancelling headphones are not a PPE item for night operations. Question 38. The FCC permit a pilot must carry for the EFB is required for which type of device? A) Cellular telephone B) Portable Wi‑Fi hotspot C) Portable electronic device that transmits on aviation frequencies
D) Tablet used for electronic charts only Answer: C Explanation: The FCC permit is needed for any portable device capable of transmitting on aviation frequencies, such as a tablet with a built‑in transceiver. Question 39. If a pilot’s EFB battery reads 55 % at the beginning of duty, what is the required action? A) Continue duty; the battery can be recharged in‑flight B) Replace the battery before starting the flight C) Report the condition and obtain a paper backup before duty D) Borrow another pilot’s device and proceed Answer: C Explanation: The battery must meet the 60 % minimum; the pilot must report the issue and use a paper backup until the device is corrected. Question 40. The “dead‑head” designation on a flight schedule indicates that the crew member is: A) Acting as a pilot in command for that flight B) Traveling as a passenger without duty status C) Performing a positioning flight while on duty but not operating the aircraft D) On a scheduled layover at the destination Answer: C Explanation: Dead‑head means the crew is on a positioning flight, on duty, but not actually operating the aircraft. Question 41. Which of the following weather phenomena is NOT considered a source of icing for the CRJ fleet? A) Cloud droplets at 0 °C
A) The limitation applies only to night flights B) The limitation is waived if the aircraft is equipped with a HUD C) The captain may not dispatch a flight with a required minimum greater than 1500 ft D) The limitation is removed after 150 total flight hours on type Answer: C Explanation: The policy caps the dispatch minimum at 1500 ft for low‑experience captains. Question 45. The “SMGCS” (Surface Movement Guidance and Control System) is activated when: A) RVR is less than 200 m on the ground B) The aircraft is taxiing above 250 kt C) The airport is under a thunderstorm warning D) Runway lights fail during takeoff Answer: A Explanation: SMGCS is used for low‑visibility ground operations, typically when RVR ≤ 200 m. Question 46. A pilot who discovers a missing spare corrective lens during pre‑flight must: A) Continue the flight; the lens is optional B) Report the discrepancy and obtain a replacement before departure C) Borrow a crew member’s lens and document the loan D) File a maintenance report after landing Answer: B Explanation: Spare corrective lenses are mandatory; a missing lens requires replacement before departure. Question 47. The “alternate minimums” derived using the double‑approach method require:
A) The higher of the two approach minima for the selected alternate runway B) The average of the two approach minima C) The lower of the two approach minima for any runway at the alternate airport D) The minimum of the two approach minima for the same runway Answer: A Explanation: The double‑approach method uses the higher of the two minima to ensure safety. Question 48. Which of the following is considered a “human trafficking” indicator that crew should report? A) Passengers carrying multiple small suitcases B) A passenger traveling alone with a large amount of cash and no return ticket C) A crew member wearing a uniform from another airline D) A flight attendant using a personal phone during duty Answer: B Explanation: Unusual travel patterns such as a solo traveler with large cash and no return ticket may indicate trafficking. Question 49. When a pilot’s BAC is found to be 0.06 % at the time of a random test, what is the appropriate company action? A) Issue a verbal warning B) Suspend the pilot for 30 days and require a rehabilitation program C) Allow the pilot to continue after a brief rest D) Require the pilot to submit a medical certificate within 24 hours Answer: B Explanation: SkyWest’s policy exceeds the FAR limit; a BAC of 0.06 % triggers suspension and remedial action.
Explanation: A “no‑fly” restriction requires the flight to be rerouted to stay clear of the prohibited airspace. Question 53. Which of the following is true about the “30‑hour rest” requirement? A) It can be split into two 15‑hour periods within a 168‑hour window B) It must be taken as a single, uninterrupted block of rest C) It may be satisfied by two separate 12‑hour rests D) It can be waived if the crew has accumulated 70 hours of rest in the preceding week Answer: B Explanation: The 30‑hour rest must be a continuous period to ensure proper recovery. Question 54. The “Cumulative Flight Hours” limit for a pilot in any 365‑day period is: A) 900 hours B) 1000 hours C) 1050 hours D) 1150 hours Answer: B Explanation: SkyWest aligns with FAR 117, which caps total flight time at 1000 hours per 365 days. Question 55. When using the EFB, the procedure for syncing mandatory manual revisions is: A) Sync automatically at the end of each flight B) Perform a manual sync before each duty day and after any software update C) No syncing required if the device is connected to Wi‑Fi D) Sync only when the pilot feels a manual is outdated Answer: B
Explanation: Pilots must manually sync the EFB before duty and after any updates to ensure the latest manuals are available. Question 56. The correct way to report a hazardous material spill on the ramp is to: A) Clean it up immediately and document the incident later B) Notify the Ground Security Coordinator and follow the airline’s hazardous material response plan C) Call the local fire department and leave the site D) Ignore it if the spill is less than 1 liter Answer: B Explanation: The GSC is the designated point of contact for hazardous material incidents, and the airline’s response plan must be followed. Question 57. Which of the following is a permissible “bottle‑to‑throttle” period for a pilot who has consumed alcohol? A) 2 hours B) 6 hours C) 12 hours D) 24 hours Answer: D Explanation: SkyWest’s policy requires a minimum of 24 hours between alcohol consumption and operating the aircraft. Question 58. In the event of a “fuel emergency” (fuel on‑board less than 30 minutes remaining), the pilot must: A) Continue to the planned destination and declare a non‑urgent fuel advisory B) Immediately divert to the nearest suitable alternate with adequate fuel reserves C) Land at the nearest airport regardless of runway length
