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NASM PES PRACTICE EXAM STUDY GUIDE
1. Sport beam: Which of the following is considered a balance modality?
2. CO-contraction: Which coordinated muscle action does balance-stabilization training improve?
3. Prone Iso-Abs: The transverse abdominis is best activated by performing which of the following
exercises?
4. Autogenic inhibition: Which of the following happens to improve soft-tissue extensibility during
self-myofascial release?
5. Mastery-oriented: Which of the following describes the motivational climate that has been proven to
produce more adaptive motivational patterns, including positive attitudes and effective learning strategies?
6. 20: If a beginner athlete sprints 15 yards during week 1 of Phase 1 SAQ training, how many yards
should he be running by week 4?
7. Football: Which sport would benefit from the inclusion of assisted drills in an SAQ program?
8. In-season: When should light to moderate sport-specific metabolic training pri- marily occur?
9. Global stabilization system: When bracing is performed, which of the following has been activated?
10. 6-8 times: How likely is an athlete with a hamstring strain at risk to experience re-injury?
11. 208: Which of the following is 70% of an athlete's age subtracted from in the HRmax regression
formula?
12. Intrinsic core stabilizers: What is probably underactive for an athlete demon- strating low back
arching during the pulling assessment?
13. Bacterial infections: Which of the following is a serious risk associated with blood doping?
14. Anterior talofibular: Which is the most commonly injured ligament in the ankle?
15. Resisted knee drive: Which specialized strength exercise for speed improves hip flexion?
16. Carbohydrate/electrolyte drinks: According to NCAA Division 1 bylaws, which ergogenic aids can
be provided to athletes by a university?
17. Stretch-shortening cycle: Training the muscle and tendon's ability to load eccentrically and
rapidly release energy concentrically is known as which of the following?
18. 25%: When using skin fold calipers to assess body composition, what is the increased risk of
error with being as much as an inch from the appropriate site?
19. Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded concentrically: - The integrated
performance paradigm states that in order to move with precision, forces must be loaded, stabilized, and unloaded in which order?
20. Ice skater: Which of the following exercises is performed in the frontal plane?
21. Supporting growth and maintenance of body tissues: Which of the following is a key role of
32. Stage 3: Which stage of cardio training should mark the gradual inclusion of repeated sprint
training?
33. Stabilization Endurance: A tempo of 4/2/1 is appropriate when training in which phase of the OPT
model?
34. Stabilization: Which of the following refers to the training used to provide optimal dynamic joint
support and maintain correct posture during all movements?
35. Lifter faces the rack, takes a comfortable grip, and steps forward under the bar: Which of the
following is correct when preparing for a back squat?
36. Females have higher relative loads on the ACL than males.: Why do females have a greater risk of
ACL injury compared to males?
37. Balance-stabilization: What exercises involve little joint motion of the balance leg to improve
reflexive joint stabilization contractions and joint stability?
38. 1.6-1.8 g/kg/day: What is the recommended protein intake for strength and power athletes?
39. Bony deformity of the acromion: Which of the following is a contributor to subacromial
impingement syndrome (SAIS)?
40. Muscle glycogen: What is the primary fuel for anaerobic ATP production for activities lasting
45-120 seconds?
41. 1,500 mg/day: Which of the following is the recommended calcium intake for an amenorrheic
athlete?
42. Visual: Which of the following is an input that the Human Movement System uses to establish
balance?
43. Concussion: Which of the following injuries often goes unrecognized and un- reported?
44. Task-oriented: A coach focused on initiating structure and accomplishing a set of objectives and
goals is using which type of leadership style?
45. General Adaptation Syndrome: Which predictable pattern best describes the adaptation to stress
the body follows to maintain a state of physiological balance (or homeostasis)?
46. Global core stabilizers: The quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external obliques, portions of the
internal obliques, rectus abdominus, gluteus medius, and adductor complex are classified as which of the following?
47. Drawing-in Maneuver: Which of the following techniques is critical for maintain- ing stability in the
sacroiliac joint?
48. Scar: What type of tissue develops in the body following an injury?
49. Function: The focus of a core training program must be on which of the follow- ing?
50. Kinesethetic: According to the text, which type of mental imagery is MOST effective for
improving sports performance?
51. Quickness: If a coach removes cones from a W or box drill and replaces them with an auditory
cue, which training is utilized?
52. Vertical jump: Which of the following exercises provides an example of a muscle's ability to
63. Creatine: Which of the following must be taken over a period of weeks in conjunction with
training to demonstrate an ergogenic effect?
64. Periodization: What is the term for the systematic approach to program design using the General
Adaptation Syndrome and the principle of specificity to produce adaptations?
65. Rate coding: What refers to the rate at which any individual nerve fiber transmits impulses per unit
of time?
66. Bench press: Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate for an athlete training in
the Strength Level (Phases 2,3,4) of the OPT model?
67. Beta-glucans: Supplementation of which nutrient has been shown to reduce the incidence of post-
marathon upper respiratory infection in runners?
68. External resistance: Which integrated training variable utilizes tubing, cable machines, or
dumbbells?
69. 5: Single-leg front-to-back hops might be done by an athlete in which phase of OPT?
70. Improve dynamic joint stabilization: Plyometric-strength exercises are de- signed to do which
of the following?
71. Snatch: Which Olympic lift moves the load from the ground to overhead in one single effort?
72. Strength and power: Which types of training are known to improve speed, agility, and
quickness by allowing greater force in less time?
73. Repeat squat jumps, lunge jumps, power step-ups: Which types of training are known to improve
speed, agility, and quickness by allowing greater force in less time?
74. Completed on days in between strength training: Which programming is optimal for SAQ
training in order to decrease fatigue and maximize effectiveness?
75. Ankle sprains: What is the most common sports-related injury, and the number one injury for time
lost?
76. Synergistic dominance: What do you risk creating if an athlete is put into a level of balance
training for which they are unprepared?
77. Simple to complex: Which answer is an example of how the continuum of function should be
progressed?
78. HR goes up: What impact will taking an antidepressant have on an athlete's heart rate(HR)?
79. Knowledge of results: Which type of feedback is used after the completion of an exercise to help
inform the athlete about the outcome of what was just performed?
80. Phase 5: power: Which phase of the OPT model supersets a traditional strength exercise (e.g.
barbell squats) with a plyometric/power exercise of similar joint me- chanics (e.g. squat jumps) to enhance prime mover strength and rate of force production?
81. 2,300 mg/day: What is the current upper intake limit for sodium for the average person as
established by the Institute of Medicine?
82. 20-25 L/min: Which of the following ranges represents cardiac output during maximal exercise?
83. Repeated sprints: Which type of training is designed to enhance power and power-endurance
for the use of Olympic lifts can be determined by performing which assessment?
94. C, E, beta carotene, selenium: Which antioxidants play a role in balancing the oxidative stress
produced by free radicals during exercise?
95. Longitudinal: When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, around which of the
following axes does the movement occur?
96. Performing one set for each muscle group, moving from upper to lower body, then repeating:
Which of the following best describes an athlete training in a vertically loaded workout?
97. Excessive lumbar extension: Which of the following is a common postural compensation
when performing a clean and jerk with the bar overhead?
98. Exhaustion: Symptoms such as stress fracture, muscle strain, joint and muscle pain, and
emotional fatigue are largely due to which of the following?
99. Rotator cuff: Which muscle functions as a stabilizer while an athlete performs a bench press?
100. Sports specific: What type of training incorporates skills and movements that mimic what
happens in competition?
101. Amortization and catch: Which movement of the snatch exercise occurs when the lifter drops
rapidly into a squat position, moving the feet quickly sideways and extending the arms overhead to catch the bar and stop its descent?
102. Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination: What type of exercises are important for the
protection of joints in an athlete's training program?
103. Irrelevant cue: When an athlete is thinking about who is in the stands during the competition,
this is an example of which of the following?
104. Reduced bone mineral density: Which of the following has research shown to be an effect of
excessive intake of vitamin A?
105. Is it safe and ethical: What is the first question athletes should ask when trying to determine
whether or not they should use supplements recommended by teammates?
106. Beginning of the workout: Central nervous system fatigue can be minimized by performing drills
with the highest magnitude of neuromuscular demand at which time during the workout?
107. Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus: What muscle(s) are likely to demonstrate decreased neural
control following an ankle sprain?
108. Hypoatremia: Endurance athletes and those with small body mass and large sodium losses are
at risk for which condition?
109. Leucine: Which amino acid specifically helps drive muscle growth?
110. Clean and jerk and the snatch: Which of the following are Olympic competi- tion lifts?
111. Slow tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment: To develop higher levels of stability, the
best way an athlete can train is with which specific forms of exercise?
112. 6%: What is the smallest percentage of deformation of collagen tissue that can lead to micro-
failure?
113. Consume a mixture of carbohydrates and amino acids before and imme- diately after strength
workouts: Which of the following statements describes the best strategy to achieve a positive protein balance?
external resistance?
126. Sensorimotor integration: Which of the following is the ability of the central nervous system to
gather and interpret sensory information to execute the proper motor response?
127. Corrective, active, functional flexibility: What three components make up the integrated
flexibility continuum?
128. Soccer: Which of the following sports activities relies the most on the oxidative energy system?
129. Push-up feet on ball: Which of the following sports activities relies the most on the oxidative
energy system?
130. 75-85%: When training for hypertrophy, what is the appropriate intensity at which resistance
training should occur?
131. Self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, and neuromuscular stretching: A well-
rounded active flexibility program utilizes which three tech- niques?
132. Flexibility: What is the ability of the Human Movement System to have optimal ROM in order to
prevent injury and enhance functional efficiency?
133. Cherry: Which of the following juices has been shown to exhibit potent anti-in- flammatory and
antioxidant effects?
134. Ankle dorsiflexion of 20 degrees: Which of the following represents a nec- essary joint range of
motion prerequisite for Olympic lifts?
135. Social comparisons: A coach who creates an outcome-oriented motivational climate implements
rewards based on which of the following criteria?
136. Blood flow resistance: What can happen when blood has a high hematocrit
137. Shark skill test: Which assessment is an appropriate progression from the sin- gle-leg squat
assessment for measuring lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
138. Altered force-couple relationships: What is an effect of a lack of neuromus- cular stabilization
139. Transverse: Which plane of motion bisects the body into upper and lower halves?
140. 2-4: How many times per week should plyometric training be used with a Phase 1: Stabilization
Endurance athlete?
141. To enhance muscle recovery and glycogen repletion: Which of the following is the most
important reason why high glycemic foods are recommended during the post exercise period?
142. Radial pulse: To enhance muscle recovery and glycogen repletion
143. To improve the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum: Which of the following is the
ultimate goal of plyometric training?
144. Push-up sprints: Which sport-specific drill is recommended for basketball, hockey, and
volleyball?
145. Most safety tests don't test minors: Why should supplements like creatine, beta-alanine, and
nitric-oxide boosters NOT be recommended to athletes who are minors?
146. Imagery: In addition to its psychological benefits, which of the following strate- gies actually
stimulates muscle contractions?
147. Between multiple races, such as at track or swim meets: Passive warming, using modalities such
158. Muscle glycogen + fatty acids: Which of the following is the last energy supply to be used?
159. Pulmonary ventilation: Which of the following best defines the process which brings oxygen
from the air, across the alveolar membrane, and into the blood to be carried by hemoglobin?
160. Transverse plane balance reach: Which is the most difficult exercise in the single-leg balance
reach progression?
161. 70 beats per minute: What is the average resting heart rate for a male athlete?
162. Strengthening the neck musculature in all planes of motion: When imple- menting concussion
prevention programming, which of the following strategies can a trainer use to mitigate the effects of a concussive injury?
163. As fast as can be controlled: Which tempo best corresponds to increases in maximal power?
164. Patellar tendinopathy: An athlete with knee valgus during the overhead squat is at risk of what
injury?
165. Left ventricle: The heart pumps blood into the aorta from which of the following structures?
166. Supine with marching: Once an individual can correctly perform the draw- ing-in maneuver in a
supine position, which of the following is the next progression?
167. Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure: Which athletes have the greatest risk for low
vitamin D status?
168. Strength: In which level of the OPT model is core training optional but recom- mended?
169. Increased motor unit recruitment: What is a primary adaptation of plyometric training
170. 150: For a 30-year-old athlete using the regression method, which of the following is the
low-end of heart rate training zone 2?
171. Sudden increases in walking or running mileage: Which of the following is a risk factor for
plantar fasciitis?
172. Snatch deadlift: Which exercise can be performed with ultra-slow descents to help improve
stability of the supportive musculature?
173. Ability to focus on relevant cues: Which of the following best describes the concept of selective
attention?
174. Standing cable chest press: Which resistance exercise is appropriate for the Phase 1:
Stabilization Endurance level of training?
175. A series of stretch-shortening cycles: Movement patterns that occur during plyometric exercise
involve which of the following?
176. Supported dumbbell row: Which of the following is the best strength exercise for an athlete who
is new to resistance training?
177. Phase 1: For which phase of training is single-leg balance reach: frontal plane most appropriate?
178. Directly behind the lifter, hands on the lifter's hips: Where should a one-person spotter
stand during a back squat?
179. Establish optimum landing mechanics, postural alignment, and reactive neuromuscular
between sets?
191. Pattern overload, aging, postural stress: What are three primary causes of muscular imbalance?
192. Muscular endurance: Resistance training protocols with higher repetitions result in which of
the following adaptations?
193. 4 weeks: What is the amount of time an athlete traditionally spends performing core-stabilization
exercises?
194. Glutamine: Athletes who train very hard year round run the risk of compromis- ing their immune
system, thereby exposing them to the flu or common cold. Which of the following is most likely going to help them recover and keep these systems strong?
195. Resistance development: Which of the following is a stage of the General Adaptation
Syndrome?
196. Integrated training: Training for optimum muscle function in all planes of motion, and utilizing
the stretch-shortening cycle are part of what type of training?
197. Rational thinking: When an official makes a bad call in favor of the other team, an athlete may use
which of the following strategies to overcome the situation?
198. 6-15%: What percentage of athletes experience low back pain in a given year?
199. 10-20%: What is the typical body fat range for female tennis players?
200. Frontal: The muscle groups of the lateral subsystem function in which plane of motion?
