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NR569 STUDY GUIDE 2026
COMPREHENSIVE ANSWER DIGEST
◉What is evidence-based practice in healthcare? Answer: The conscientious, judicious, and reasonable use of modern evidence in making decisions about an individual's care. ◉What does a PICOT question stand for in clinical research? Answer: Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, and Time. ◉What does sensitivity refer to in medical testing? Answer: Sensitivity refers to a test's ability to correctly designate an individual with a disease as positive. ◉What does specificity refer to in medical testing? Answer: Specificity refers to a test's ability to correctly identify patients who do not have the disease. ◉What is a positive likelihood ratio in clinical practice? Answer: It is the likelihood that a patient with the disease tests positive compared to the likelihood that a patient without the disease tests positive.
◉What is a negative likelihood ratio in clinical practice? Answer: It is the likelihood that a patient with the disease tests negative compared to the likelihood that a patient without the disease tests negative. ◉What are the categories of radiographic densities in diagnostic imaging? Answer: Air (blackest), Fat (darkest grey), Soft tissues/fluid (light grey), Minerals (lightest grey), Metal (white, most dense). ◉What does the USPSTF Grade A recommendation indicate? Answer: It recommends a service with high certainty that the net benefits are substantial; the service should be offered or provided. ◉What does the USPSTF Grade B recommendation indicate? Answer: It recommends a service with high certainty that the net benefits are moderate; the service should be offered or provided. ◉What does the USPSTF Grade C recommendation indicate? Answer: It recommends selectively offering or providing a service based on professional judgment and patient preference; the net benefit is small. ◉What does the USPSTF Grade D recommendation indicate? Answer: It recommends against a service, indicating moderate or high certainty that the service has no net benefit.
◉What is a pustule? Answer: A small blister filled with pus. ◉What typically causes pustules? Answer: Bacterial infections or superinfections. ◉Describe a plaque in dermatological terms. Answer: A flat, palpable lesion that may have secondary changes such as scale or crusting. ◉What are some causes of plaques? Answer: Psoriasis, mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD), syphilis, atypical drug eruptions, malignancy. ◉What is rosacea? Answer: A condition characterized by acneiform inflammation of the central face, with erythema, flushing episodes, telangiectasias, and often papules and pustules. ◉What is a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? Answer: An IgE mediated response that activates mast cells, causing immediate reactions like angioedema and urticaria. ◉What are examples of Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions? Answer: Asthma, allergic rhinitis, allergic dermatitis, food allergies, allergic conjunctivitis, anaphylaxis.
◉What characterizes a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction? Answer: A cytotoxic response involving IgG or IgM antibodies leading to blood dyscrasia. ◉What are some conditions associated with Type 2 hypersensitivity? Answer: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, immune thrombocytopenia, autoimmune neutropenia, leukopenia, blood transfusion reactions. ◉What defines a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction? Answer: Immune complex deposition and complement activation leading to immediate reactions. ◉What are examples of Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions? Answer: Vasculitis, serum sickness, rheumatoid arthritis (RA), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). ◉What is a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction? Answer: A T cell mediated response that is the most common delayed reaction. ◉What are examples of Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions? Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome, contact dermatitis, TB lesions.
◉What are splinter hemorrhages? Answer: Linear hemorrhages in the nail beds associated with infective endocarditis. ◉What tests are used to evaluate dyspnea? Answer: CXR, EKG, ABG, CBC, CTA, Transthoracic Echocardiogram (TTE), BNP, Methemoglobin, Carboxyhemoglobin, D-Dimer, PFT, 6 minute walk test, CPET. ◉What are the symptoms and treatment for asthma? Answer: Symptoms include intermittent airway obstruction, wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness, often triggered by allergens, exercise, or infections. Treatment includes bronchodilators or steroids. ◉What characterizes Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) and its treatment? Answer: COPD is a progressive lung disease causing airflow obstruction, with symptoms like chronic cough, shortness of breath, and wheezing, often linked to smoking. Treatment includes bronchodilators, steroids, and anticholinergics. ◉What is stridor and how is it treated? Answer: Stridor is a high- pitched musical sound caused by an obstruction in the trachea or larynx, heard during inspiration. Treatment may require emergent intubation or surgical airway, and inhaled heliox.
◉What is a pulmonary effusion and its treatment options? Answer: A pulmonary effusion is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the intrapleural spaces of the lungs. Treatment options include thoracentesis, chest tube placement, or surgical drainage. ◉What defines hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)? Answer: HAP develops in patients hospitalized for at least 48 hours, with symptoms not present at the time of admission, often caused by antibiotic-resistant bacteria. ◉What is community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and its common causes? Answer: CAP is an acute infection of the pulmonary parenchyma acquired outside the hospital, commonly caused by bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae or viruses. ◉What is ventilator-acquired pneumonia? Answer: Ventilator- acquired pneumonia is a specific type of HAP that occurs in patients on mechanical ventilation for at least 48 hours, caused by bacteria resistant to multiple antibiotics. ◉What is the goal of oxygen supplementation for dyspnea? Answer: The goal is to diminish the activation of chemoreceptors; pursed lip breathing can lessen dynamic airway collapse, and inspiratory muscle training can strengthen the ventilatory pump.
◉What are the characteristics of acute nausea and vomiting? Answer: Acute nausea and vomiting can be caused by acute infections (especially gastrointestinal), ingestion of toxins, gastrointestinal obstruction or ischemia, new medications, pregnancy, or head trauma/increased intracranial pressure. ◉What defines chronic nausea and vomiting? Answer: Chronic nausea and vomiting persist for more than 1 month, suggesting partial mechanical obstruction, intracranial pathology, dysmotility (such as gastroparesis), metabolic or endocrine issues, or psychological disturbances.
