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📋 DOCUMENT OVERVIEW^ 264 Qs
The "NUR 112 Final Exam Review" document covers specific topics such as Personal Protective
Equipment (PPE) protocols, fire safety, patient assault and battery, and physical health and autonomy. It
provides a comprehensive review of nursing concepts with 264 questions, each accompanied by a
correct answer and detailed explanations/rationales, including diagrams/images for enhanced
understanding. This document can be used by students to study, review, and deeply understand nursing
concepts, making it a valuable resource for exam preparation.
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NUR 112 FINAL EXAM REVIEW NUR 112 FINAL EXAM REVIEW
260+ (Updated 2026) Official-Style Exam Pack | Verified Answers | Expert-Reviewed
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EXAM QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
Donning PPE order:
CORRECT ANSWER ) Gown 2.) Mask 3.) Goggles / face shield 4.) Gloves
RATIONALE: This order prioritizes protection for the most vulnerable areas of the human body, with the gown providing overall coverage, followed by the mask to safeguard the face and respiratory system, then goggles/face shield to protect the eyes, and finally gloves to prevent skin contact. The sequence also ensures that the innermost layers of PPE are put on last, preventing contamination from outer layers and reducing the risk of cross-contamination.
QUESTION 2
Doffing PPE:
CORRECT ANSWER
) Gloves 2.) Goggles / face shield 3.) Gown 4.) Mask
RATIONALE: When doffing PPE, one must first remove the outermost layer, which would be the gown, to prevent contamination from spreading. The remaining items, gloves, goggles/face shield, and mask, should then be removed in a specific order to prevent the outer layer from coming into contact with the face and other areas that were previously protected, thereby maintaining a clean and controlled environment.
QUESTION 3
What is the correct sequence for using a fire extinguisher?
CORRECT ANSWER Pull pin Aim nozzle Squeeze handle Sweep towards base of fire
RATIONALE: This sequence is the correct method for using a fire extinguisher because it follows the PASS protocol, which is a widely recognized and standardized procedure that prepares the user to effectively address the fire by pulling the safety pin (P), aiming the nozzle (A), squeezing the handle (S), and sweeping the nozzle in a back-and-forth motion towards the base of the fire (S). The PASS protocol ensures that the user is properly prepared and equipped to tackle the fire in a controlled and safe manner.
QUESTION 4
What do you do if a fire occurs?
CORRECT ANSWER RACE: Rescue and remove clients in immediate danger Activate alarm Contain fire Extinguish fire
RATIONALE: The RACE acronym is a structured approach to fire safety, prioritizing immediate actions that ensure the safety of people and the containment of the fire to prevent further damage. Each step is a logical progression, starting with removing people from danger, activating an alarm to alert others, containing the fire to prevent it from spreading, and finally extinguishing it to eliminate the threat.
QUESTION 5
- An intentional threat toward another person that places them in reasonable fear of harmful,
imminent, or unwelcome contact.
**- NO actual contact is necessary
- Ex: A threat to tie a patient or to give an injection to quiet a patient when they have refused**
consent.
QUESTION 9
Nurse's role in informed consent is limited to:
CORRECT ANSWER
- Witnessing a patient's signature
- Validating that the consent is voluntary, that risks, benefits, & alternatives & right to refuse the procedure were discussed with the patient by the health care provider.
- The patient should be competent
- Informed consent is accurately & appropriately filled out with date, time, & appropriate signatures - On the patient's chart before transporting the patient to the procedure area.
- If pt refuses procedure then obtain written, signed, and witnessed documentation of refusal.
RATIONALE: The correct answer highlights the nurse's role in ensuring that informed consent is accurately documented, which involves witnessing the patient's signature and validating that the process was voluntary and comprehensive, reflecting the nurse's responsibility in maintaining a legal record. By focusing on these aspects, the answer emphasizes that the nurse's role is not in obtaining informed consent, but rather in verifying its authenticity and documentation.
QUESTION 10
Informed consent indicates that the client has received the following info:
CORRECT ANSWER
- Diagnosis or condition that requires treatment
- Purpose of treatment
- What the client can expect to feel or experience
- Intended benefits
- Possible risks or negative outcomes
- Advantages/disadvantages of possible alternatives (including no treatment)
RATIONALE: Informed consent requires a client to be thoroughly aware of the diagnosis or condition they are being treated for, the purpose and expected outcomes of the treatment, as well as any potential risks or negative outcomes. This comprehensive information allows the client to make an informed decision about their care, weighing the benefits and risks of treatment against possible alternatives, including doing nothing.
QUESTION 11
Indicates peritoneal hemorrhage / intra-abdominal bleeding. Mark it to determine borders.
CORRECT ANSWER Grey Turner's or Cullen's Sign
RATIONALE: Grey Turner's or Cullen's sign indicates peritoneal hemorrhage or intra-abdominal bleeding due to the appearance of bluish discoloration or ecchymosis on the flanks or periumbilical region, respectively, which is a result of extravasated blood spreading to the surrounding tissues. These signs serve as visual indicators of the borders of the bleeding area, allowing medical professionals to assess the extent of the internal hemorrhage.
QUESTION 12
"Lady with the Lamp"; wrote Notes on Nursing: What It Is, and What it is Not. Was a nurse during the
Crimean War.
CORRECT ANSWER Florence Nightingale (1820-1910)
RATIONALE: The nickname "Lady with the Lamp" specifically refers to Florence Nightingale, who was known for her nocturnal rounds among wounded soldiers during the Crimean War, providing care and comfort. Her influential book "Notes on Nursing: What It Is, and What it is Not" is also attributed to her, solidifying her status as a pioneering figure in the nursing profession.
QUESTION 13
Organized nursing services during the American Civil War; established the American Red Cross.
CORRECT ANSWER Clara Barton (1812-1912)
RATIONALE: Clara Barton's contributions to organized nursing services during the American Civil War stem from her work as a teacher and clerk who provided care and assistance to soldiers on the front lines, ultimately leading to the establishment of a more formal and structured nursing system. The American Red Cross was founded by Barton in 1881, after she had gained international recognition for her humanitarian work during the Civil War and seen the value of a formal organization like the International Red Cross.
QUESTION 14
Introduced nurse's notes & doctor's orders; initiated the practice of wearing uniforms.
CORRECT ANSWER Linda Richards (1841-1926)
RATIONALE: Linda Richards is credited with introducing nurse's notes and doctor's orders as a way to standardize patient care and improve communication between nurses and physicians, which revolutionized nursing practices at the time. By initiating the practice of wearing uniforms, she also helped establish a professional identity for nurses, setting a precedent for modern nursing attire and fostering a sense of unity and respect among nursing professionals.
QUESTION 15
The founder of public health nursing; established the Henry Street Settlement.
CORRECT ANSWER Lillian Wald (1867-1940)
RATIONALE: Lillian Wald's pioneering work in visiting and caring for vulnerable populations, particularly immigrant communities in New York City, laid the foundation for the development of public health nursing as a distinct field. By establishing the Henry Street Settlement, Wald created a comprehensive model of community-based nursing care that addressed the social, emotional, and physical needs of her patients, cementing her legacy as a trailblazer in public health nursing.
QUESTION 16
RATIONALE: The team nursing approach is correct because it involves a collaborative style where each team member helps one another, promoting a shared workload and efficient care delivery. The hierarchical structure and supervision by the RN also ensure that patients receive comprehensive care while the RN can focus on more complex tasks, such as patient assessment and planning.
QUESTION 19
The RN assumes responsibility for a caseload of patients at the bedside, and cares for the same clients
during his/her shift from the time of admission to discharge.
- Responsible for assessing patients, developing care plans, & providing direct care.
Advantages: Flexible, maintains continuity of care, increases nursing autonomy and promotes
collaboration between nurses and HCPs, improves patient-nurse relationship, reduces errors in
communication of orders.
Disadvantages: RN works with limited number of patients, other nurses must consult primary nurse
before changing care plan(s)
CORRECT ANSWER Primary Nursing
RATIONALE: Primary Nursing is the correct approach as it enables RNs to assume full responsibility for a caseload of patients, fostering continuity of care, improved nurse-patient relationships, and enhanced communication, ultimately benefiting patient outcomes. By having RNs care for the same clients throughout their shift, Primary Nursing promotes autonomy, collaboration, and more effective care coordination, making it a preferred model of nursing practice.
QUESTION 20
Practice that recognizes that education & experience lead to differences in nursing care; each unit
identifies expertise needed for the patients & competencies required to deliver that care; nurses must
put together a portfolio; patients are assigned accordingly.
CORRECT ANSWER Differentiated Practice
RATIONALE: Differentiated Practice is the correct answer because it acknowledges that individual nurses develop unique skills and expertise through education and experience, allowing for tailored patient assignments that match their competencies. This approach enables nurses to take ownership of their professional development by creating a portfolio that showcases their specialized skills, ensuring patients receive the most appropriate care from the most qualified nurse.
QUESTION 21
- Health insurance program for:
. People 65 or older
. People under 65 with certain disabilities
. People of all ages with ESRD (end stage renal disease)
**- Part A Hospital Insurance- most pay no premium d/t payroll taxes
- Part B Medical Insurance- monthly premium**
**- Part C Medicare advantage plan
- Part D Prescription drug coverage- monthly premium- provided by insurance companies**
CORRECT ANSWER Medicare
RATIONALE: Medicare is the correct answer because it encompasses all the mentioned groups and components, including coverage for people 65 or older, those with certain disabilities, and individuals with end-stage renal disease, as well as the various parts of the program such as hospital insurance, medical insurance, and prescription drug coverage. The details provided in the question align with the structure and purpose of Medicare, which is a federal health insurance program designed to provide coverage to these specific groups.
QUESTION 22
**- Joint federal and state program with limited income and resources.
- Also offers benefits not normally covered by Medicare.
- Spend down- some states offer program
- Dual eligibility for Medicare & Medicaid**
CORRECT ANSWER Medicaid
RATIONALE: Medicaid fits the description because it is a joint program between the federal and state governments that provides healthcare benefits to individuals with limited income and resources, often covering services not included in Medicare. The program's "spend down" option, offered by some states, and dual eligibility for Medicare and Medicaid further align with the provided details.
QUESTION 23
**- Protected people's choice of doctors.
- Put an end to lifetime limits on the care a person could receive.**
-Now children with pre-existing conditions acquire and keep coverage.
CORRECT ANSWER Affordable Care Act
RATIONALE: The Affordable Care Act achieved these outcomes by expanding healthcare coverage and protections, particularly through the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act's provisions such as guaranteed issue, essential health benefits, and individual mandate. These provisions allowed consumers to make informed choices about their healthcare, ensured they received necessary treatment, and ensured that children with pre-existing conditions could access and maintain coverage without facing discriminatory practices.
QUESTION 24
**- Bundled payments
Prohibit cancellation for illness
Eliminate preexisting condition clauses
Prohibit lifetime limits
Patterns using a circular motion:
**- Spiral
- Pie-shaped wedges
- Up and down**
CORRECT ANSWER Breast Self-Examination Techniques
RATIONALE: When performing a breast self-examination, using a circular motion allows for a thorough and even coverage of the breast tissue, enabling the identification of any irregularities or abnormalities. This technique, also known as the "circular motion" or "pie-shaped wedges" method, is particularly effective for detecting patterns within the breast, making it the correct answer.
QUESTION 27
**- Changes in shape, size, contour, or symmetry
- Skin discoloration or dimpling, bumps/lumps
- Sores or scaly skin
- Discharge or puckering of the nipple
- Hard, fixed, non-tender (cancerous lumps)**
CORRECT ANSWER Changes to assess during breast self exam:
RATIONALE: This answer is correct because it accurately lists the specific changes that are considered abnormal and potentially indicative of breast cancer, which are the primary focus of a breast self-exam. By identifying these key changes, individuals can effectively assess their breast health and seek medical attention if any unusual characteristics are detected.
QUESTION 28
5-34 bowel sounds/min.
CORRECT ANSWER Normoactive bowel sounds
RATIONALE: Normal bowel sounds typically range from 5 to 34 bowel sounds per minute, and this specific range is considered within the normal limits due to the natural fluctuations in gut motility throughout the day. Bowel sounds that fall within this range indicate a healthy, active, and functionally normal bowel, hence the term "normoactive" being used to describe it.
QUESTION 29
Greater than 34 bowel sounds/min.
- Could be caused by diarrhea, GI bleed, etc...
CORRECT ANSWER Hyperactive bowel sounds
RATIONALE: The term "hyperactive bowel sounds" accurately describes a situation with bowel sounds greater than 34 per minute because it quantitatively conveys the increased frequency of bowel sounds. This term is particularly relevant in a medical context where a precise measurement of bowel sounds can indicate conditions such as diarrhea or GI bleed.
QUESTION 30
Less than 5 bowel sounds/min.
- Could be caused by pregnancy.
CORRECT ANSWER Hypoactive bowel sounds
RATIONALE: Hypoactive bowel sounds refer to a decrease in the number of bowel sounds, specifically less than 5 sounds per minute, which can indicate an obstruction or decreased motility of the intestines. The mention of "Could be caused by pregnancy" suggests that pregnancy-related changes, such as increased intra-abdominal pressure or slowed gut motility, may lead to this decrease in bowel sounds.
QUESTION 31
**- Tests for appendicitis
- RLQ pain
- Press in on abdomen and then go.
- Ask if patient felt any pain.
- If yes, ask if they felt pain when you pressed in or let go.
- If they felt the pain when you let go then that's a positive ______________ sign.**
CORRECT ANSWER Rebound Tenderness (Blumberg Sign)
RATIONALE: The Blumberg sign is a positive indicator of rebound tenderness, which occurs when the patient experiences pain when the pressure is released, indicating irritation of the peritoneum and potential inflammation of the appendix. This phenomenon is due to the increased sensitivity of the peritoneum, which becomes more painful when subjected to rapid pressure changes, making Blumberg sign a valuable diagnostic tool for appendicitis.
QUESTION 32
Which crutch gaits are weight baring on both extremities?
CORRECT ANSWER Swing-to crutch gait Swing-through gait 4-point crutch gait 2-point crutch gait 3-point crutch gait is the only one that doesn't allow weight baring on both extremities.
Able to move joint with full resistance through range of motion
RATIONALE: This grading system is based on the concept of testing muscle strength in a controlled environment, where the effects of gravity are minimized or eliminated, allowing the examiner to assess the muscle's ability to generate force independently of external resistance. By incrementally increasing the level of resistance or gravity, the system provides a clear and systematic way to quantify muscle strength, from minimal contraction to full resistance through a range of motion.
QUESTION 36
What are the two main things we are checking for with the musculoskeletal assessment?
CORRECT ANSWER
RATIONALE: During a musculoskeletal assessment, ROM (Range of Motion) refers to the ability to move a joint through its full range of motion, while Strength assesses the power and ability of a muscle to contract and move a joint against resistance. These two components are essential in evaluating the musculoskeletal system's function and identifying any potential issues or impairments.
QUESTION 37
Mixing Insulin:
CORRECT ANSWER ) Draw up amount of air equal to amount of NPH insulin and expel air into the vial (AVOID touching liquid with needle) 2.) Draw up amount of air equal to amount of regular insulin and expel the air into the vial. 3.) Draw up the ordered amount of regular insulin 4.) Draw up the ordered amount of NPH insulin
- (Air into cloudy, air into clear, draw up clear, draw up cloudy)
- Cloudy, Clear, Clear, Cloudy
RATIONALE: When mixing NPH and regular insulin, air is first drawn into the cloudy NPH vial to remove any excess liquid, allowing the correct dose to be drawn up accurately. Then, air is drawn into the clear regular insulin vial, which may contain extra liquid that would skew the dose, and this air is expelled into the NPH vial, ensuring equal volumes of both types of insulin are mixed together.
QUESTION 38
Identify the long-acting insulins that cannot be mixed with any other insulin.
CORRECT ANSWER Lantus & Levemir
RATIONALE: Lantus and Levemir are long-acting insulins that cannot be mixed with any other insulin because they are both ultra-long-acting insulin analogs that are formulated with a unique excipient that can cause precipitation or aggregation when mixed with other insulins, potentially reducing their effectiveness. This unique formulation makes them the only long-acting insulins that cannot be safely mixed with other insulins.
QUESTION 39
Insulin and Heparin are _________________________ medications.
CORRECT ANSWER high alert
RATIONALE: Both Insulin and Heparin are medications that require careful dosing and monitoring, as they can have severe consequences if administered incorrectly, such as hypoglycemia or bleeding. Therefore, these medications necessitate a "high alert" status, which is a designation used in healthcare to indicate that they pose a heightened risk to patient safety if not handled appropriately.
QUESTION 40
Which insulin(s) can be given IV?
CORRECT ANSWER Regular Insulin
RATIONALE: Regular insulin is typically given intravenously because it is a short-acting insulin with a fast onset of action, allowing it to be administered in a controlled environment, such as a hospital setting, where IV administration can be closely monitored. In contrast, other types of insulin, like NPH or Lantus, are not suitable for IV administration due to their longer onset of action and potential for causing hypoglycemia if not properly managed.
QUESTION 41
Which lab value is used to monitor heparin?
CORRECT ANSWER PTT (partial thromboplastin time)
RATIONALE: The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin because it measures the time it takes for blood to clot after the addition of substances that mimic the body's natural clotting process, and heparin works by inhibiting this clotting process. By measuring the prolongation of PTT, healthcare providers can accurately assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy and make necessary adjustments to prevent bleeding or thrombosis.
QUESTION 42
True or False: Rapid acting insulins are cloudy and intermediate acting insulins are clear.
CORRECT ANSWER FALSE: Rapid acting insulins are clear and intermediate acting insulins are cloudy.
RATIONALE: Wernicke's area is considered critical for language comprehension because it is a region in the left posterior superior temporal gyrus where neurons process and interpret auditory language inputs, enabling listeners to understand the meaning of spoken words and sentences. Damage to Wernicke's area can lead to Wernicke's aphasia, a language disorder characterized by difficulty understanding spoken language and producing coherent sentences.
QUESTION 47
Part of the frontal lobe critical for motor control of speech.
CORRECT ANSWER Broca's area
RATIONALE: Broca's area is the correct answer because it is a specific region in the frontal lobe of the brain that plays a crucial role in the motor control of speech, particularly in articulating and pronouncing words. Lesions or damage to Broca's area can lead to Broca's aphasia, a condition characterized by difficulty speaking in grammatically correct sentences and articulating words, highlighting the area's importance in speech motor control.
QUESTION 48
Cranial Nerves:
CORRECT ANSWER I. Olfactory- Sensory II. Optic- Sensory III. Oculomotor- Motor IV. Trochlear- Motor V. Trigeminal- Both VI. Abducens- Motor VII. Facial- Both VIII. Vestibulocochlear / Acoustic- Sensory IX. Glossopharyngeal- Both X. Vagus- Both XI. Accessory- Motor XII. Hypoglossal- Motor
RATIONALE: This classification of cranial nerves accurately reflects their primary functions: sensory (receiving and processing information), motor (initiating movement), or both, as they often serve multiple purposes within the body. Each nerve's classification is based on its primary function, with some nerves having additional secondary functions, but for the purpose of this classification, their primary role is highlighted.
QUESTION 49
**- Both motor and sensory
- M - Jaw clenching, chewing
- S - Facial sensation, corneal reflex.
- To test facial sensation, use a cotton ball to swipe over patient's face in three location. Patient**
should be able to tell you where you are touching them.
- To test corneal reflex, use a cotton ball and try to touch the outer portion of the eye. Patient should
blink.
CORRECT ANSWER V. Trigeminal
RATIONALE: The correct answer is related to the trigeminal nerve because it is the cranial nerve responsible for both motor functions such as jaw clenching and chewing, and sensory functions including facial sensation and the corneal reflex. The specific tests mentioned, which involve touching the face and eye to assess sensation and reflexes, are associated with the trigeminal nerve's distribution and function, particularly its ophthalmic and maxillary branches.
QUESTION 50
**- Both Motor and Sensory
- M: Facial expression, eye blink muscles.
- S: Taste, sensation in throat.
- Taste: Test taste on anterior 2/3 of the tongue for taste. Can place lemon, etc...**
CORRECT ANSWER VII. Facial
RATIONALE: The Facial nerve (VII) is responsible for controlling muscles involved in facial expressions and eye blinking, as well as transmitting sensory information from the taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. This is because the Facial nerve has both motor and sensory functions, with its motor fibers controlling muscles and its sensory fibers transmitting taste sensation.
QUESTION 51
**- Motor
- Head turn & shoulder movement
- Raising shoulders against resistance**
CORRECT ANSWER XI. Spinal Accessory
RATIONALE: The Spinal Accessory nerve is responsible for controlling the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, which are involved in head turn and shoulder movement, as well as raising shoulders against resistance. This is because the Spinal Accessory nerve provides motor innervation to these muscles, enabling them to function properly and facilitate the described movements.
QUESTION 52
Documenting Reflexes:
CORRECT ANSWER Grade 0 No response Grade 1+ Decreased, less active than normal Grade 2+ Normal, usual response Grade 3+
QUESTION 56
Symptoms: Shakiness, dizziness, irritability, headache, confusion, diaphoresis, anxiety, fatigue,
hunger.
CORRECT ANSWER Hypoglycemia (<60 mg/dl)
RATIONALE: The symptoms described, such as shakiness, dizziness, and irritability, are classic indicators of an acute physiological response to a drop in blood glucose levels, which is a hallmark of hypoglycemia. These symptoms occur when the brain, which relies heavily on glucose for energy, is not receiving sufficient glucose from the blood, leading to a cascade of compensatory mechanisms that manifest as the listed symptoms.
QUESTION 57
Key points for ampules:
CORRECT ANSWER
- Wear gloves
- Tap top lightly to displace med to bottom
- Use a gauze or unopened alcohol swab
- Break open away from you
- Set it down on a flat surface
- Always wear gloves
- Always use a filter needle- prevents glass from getting into med.
- Do not allow needle tip or shaft to touch the rim of the ampule.
- DO NOT insert air into the ampule when it is inverted.
- Change your needle PRIOR to giving the injection.
RATIONALE: This list of key points for ampules prioritizes safety and minimizing contamination by emphasizing the use of gloves, filter needles, and aseptic technique when handling and breaking ampules to prevent exposure to the medication and potential glass shards. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can ensure a safe and sterile environment for administering injections and minimize the risk of injury or infection.
QUESTION 58
What is a normal BMI?
CORRECT ANSWER 5-24.
RATIONALE: A normal BMI is typically classified as a range, rather than a specific number, to account for individual variations in body composition and muscle mass, with the World Health Organization defining normal weight as a BMI between 18.5 and 24.9. This range allows for a more accurate assessment of an individual's health status and minimizes the risk of misclassification based on a single BMI value.
QUESTION 59
FICA tool for Spiritual assessment:
CORRECT ANSWER
F- Faith and belief
- "Do you consider yourself spiritual or religious?" or "Do you have spiritual beliefs that help you cope with stress/difficult times?"
- If the patient responds, "No," the healthcare provider might ask, "What gives your life meaning?"
- Sometimes patients respond with answers such as family, career, or nature. I- Importance
- "What importance does your faith or belief have in our life?"
- "Have your beliefs influenced how you take care of yourself in this illness?"
- "What role do your beliefs play in regaining your health?" C- Community
- "Are you part of a spiritual or religious community?"
- "Is this of support to you and how?"
- "Is there a group of people you really love or who are important to you?" Communities such as churches, temples, and mosques, or a group of like-minded friends can serve as strong support systems for some patients. A- Address in care -"How would you like me (your healthcare provider) to address these issues in your health care?"
RATIONALE: The FICA tool correctly addresses the question by incorporating its components: Faith, Importance, Community, and Address in care, which comprehensively assess a patient's spiritual needs and how they impact their healthcare. By covering these key aspects, the FICA tool enables healthcare providers to have a more holistic understanding of patients' values and beliefs that influence their health and well-being.
QUESTION 60
Is an organized system of beliefs shared by a group of people; there are practices, behaviors, worship,
and rituals associated with that system.
CORRECT ANSWER Religion
RATIONALE: The key concepts of an organized system of beliefs, shared practices, behaviors, worship, and rituals are central characteristics that define a religion. This definition encompasses the core elements that distinguish religious systems from other forms of social or cultural expression.
QUESTION 61
Is multifaceted; it is a search for a meaningful and overall purpose of life and a sense of life's
direction. It is the essence of who we are and how we are in the world.
CORRECT ANSWER Spirituality
RATIONALE: This description aligns with the concept of spirituality because it emphasizes the pursuit of a deeper, meaningful understanding of oneself and life's purpose, which is a core aspect of spiritual exploration. The focus on essence and direction also suggests a transcendent or existential perspective, which is characteristic of spiritual inquiry.
QUESTION 62
Order of assessment EXCEPT for the abdomen:
