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This "Nursing 112 Exam 1 study guide" document provides a comprehensive review of various nursing
concepts, including patient interactions, pharmacology, medication administration, dosage calculations,
and communication skills. The document contains 943 questions with correct answers and detailed
explanations, as well as diagrams and images to support learning. Students can use this resource to
study and review key concepts, understand complex topics, and reinforce their knowledge in preparation
for exams.
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NURSING 112 EXAM 1 STUDY GUIDE NURSING 112 EXAM 1 STUDY GUIDE
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EXAM QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
Caring Patient Interactions with older adults
CORRECT ANSWER never call a person sweetie, honey, dear. What is your name and how would u like to be addressed. Give hearing aid, glasses, dentures if needed before you start talking.
RATIONALE: This response is the correct answer because it emphasizes the importance of respecting older adults' autonomy and individuality by addressing them by their name and their preferred title, rather than using generic or overly familiar terms. Additionally, it prioritizes accessibility by ensuring that the patient's visual and auditory needs are met, promoting effective communication and enhancing the care interaction.
QUESTION 2
What Does Pharmacology Consist Of?
CORRECT ANSWER Dosage Calculations Medication Administration
Drug Classifications
RATIONALE: Pharmacology involves understanding the dosage calculations and medication administration processes to ensure safe and effective treatment, as well as classifying drugs based on their chemical properties, therapeutic effects, and potential side effects to inform treatment decisions. By covering these aspects, pharmacology provides a comprehensive framework for healthcare professionals to manage medications and optimize patient outcomes.
QUESTION 3
1 lb = ____oz
CORRECT ANSWER 16 oz
RATIONALE: The conversion from pounds to ounces is based on the fact that there are 16 units of ounces in 1 unit of pound, making it a fixed conversion ratio. This ratio is established by the US customary system, where 1 pound is equal to 16 ounces as a fundamental unit conversion.
QUESTION 4
1 oz = ____ mL
CORRECT ANSWER 30 mL
RATIONALE: The conversion from ounces to milliliters primarily relies on the U.S. customary system's definition of 1 fluid ounce as being equivalent to 29.5735296 milliliters. This specific conversion factor is used to accurately translate between the two units, ensuring that "30 mL" is the correct outcome of the given equation.
QUESTION 5
1 teaspoon = _______ mL
CORRECT ANSWER 5 mL
RATIONALE: The conversion between teaspoons and milliliters is based on a standard unit of measurement, where 1 teaspoon is equal to 5 milliliters due to the defined volume capacity of a typical teaspoon. This standard measurement is widely accepted and used in various applications, including cooking and laboratory settings, to ensure consistency and accuracy.
QUESTION 6
1 tablespoon = ________ mL
CORRECT ANSWER 15 mL
QUESTION 11
1 mg = _____ mcg
CORRECT ANSWER 1000 mcg
RATIONALE: To solve this conversion, we need to understand the relationship between milligrams (mg) and micrograms (mcg), where 1 milligram is equal to 1000 micrograms. This is based on the fact that the prefix "micro-" means one- millionth, so to convert from milligrams to micrograms, we multiply the given milligrams by 1000.
QUESTION 12
1 L = ____ mL
CORRECT ANSWER 1000 mL
RATIONALE: One liter (L) is a unit of volume, and it is defined as 1000 milliliters (mL) because it was originally based on the volume of a kilogram of pure water at a specific temperature and pressure. This definition was adopted as a standard unit of measurement, resulting in the conversion factor 1 L = 1000 mL.
QUESTION 13
1 in = _________ cm
CORRECT ANSWER 2.5 cm
RATIONALE: The conversion from inches to centimeters is based on the international standard, where 1 inch (in) is equal to 2.54 centimeters (cm), not 2.5 cm. This discrepancy occurs because the question is incomplete or incorrectly stated, as it does not specify the unit of measurement for 1 inch.
QUESTION 14
1 cm = _____ mm
CORRECT ANSWER 10 mm
RATIONALE: To solve this conversion problem, it's essential to understand that 1 centimeter is equal to 10 millimeters because there are 10 smaller units (millimeters) within a larger unit (centimeter). This is based on the metric system's base-10 structure, where each larger unit is divided into 10 equal smaller units.
QUESTION 15
2 lb = ______ kg
CORRECT ANSWER 1 kg
RATIONALE: To solve this conversion, we need to know the equivalent weight of 1 pound in kilograms, which is approximately 0.45 kg. Then, we multiply 2 pounds by 0.45 kg/pound to find the equivalent weight in kilograms.
QUESTION 16
pharmacology
CORRECT ANSWER Drug effects on the body The body's response to the drug Includes legal and illegal, prescription and non-prescription, and herbal supplements.
RATIONALE: Pharmacology is the study of the effects of drugs on living organisms, encompassing both the body's response to a drug and the drug's mechanisms of action. The correct answer "Drug effects on the body" accurately reflects this focus on the interaction between drugs and the body, making it a concise and relevant description of the field of pharmacology.
QUESTION 17
pharmacology example
CORRECT ANSWER diphenhydramine (benadryl). the drug's effect is to eliminate or decrease the severity of patients syndrome. the body's response is drowsiness.
RATIONALE: Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine medication that works by blocking histamine receptors, which are responsible for causing allergic reactions and symptoms such as hives, itching, and runny nose. By reducing histamine activity, the drug effectively alleviates or decreases the severity of allergic symptoms, which explains why its use results in drowsiness as the body's response.
QUESTION 18
Nursing Responsibilities in Pharmacology
CORRECT ANSWER Administration Assessing drug effects Interventions to make drug more tolerable Patient education Continuous monitoring Keeping self up to date on ever-changing drugs!!!!
RATIONALE: This answer reflects the comprehensive scope of nursing responsibilities in pharmacology, encompassing not only the administration of medications but also ongoing assessments, interventions, and education to ensure patient safety and optimal health outcomes. By integrating these core concepts, nurses can effectively manage medication- related care and adapt to the evolving landscape of pharmacology.
QUESTION 19
We are the front-line defense between patients AND the medication
CORRECT ANSWER contains prescribing information
RATIONALE: The Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) is a comprehensive guide that contains detailed information about prescription and over-the-counter medications, including their uses, side effects, interactions, and dosages. This characteristic aligns with the label "contains prescribing information," which refers to the essential details that healthcare professionals need to safely prescribe and manage medications.
QUESTION 24
drug guide
CORRECT ANSWER a reference nurses use a lot. you might not find every medication in it.
RATIONALE: This answer is correct because a drug guide, often a reference book, typically lists common medications and their uses, but may not cover every medication that exists. The phrase "you might not find every medication in it" implies a comprehensive reference that is not exhaustive, which aligns with the characteristics of a drug guide.
QUESTION 25
U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
CORRECT ANSWER Regulates testing, manufacturing, and sale of ALL medications Monitors safety and effectiveness Does the drug approval process
RATIONALE: The key concepts of testing, manufacturing, and sale of medications, monitoring safety and effectiveness, and the drug approval process directly align with the U.S. Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) primary responsibilities and regulatory powers. This alignment is evident in the FDA's role as a government agency tasked with ensuring the public's health and safety by overseeing the pharmaceutical industry.
QUESTION 26
Some medicinal products are not FDA regulated, such as
CORRECT ANSWER Herbal remedies Naturopathic supplements
RATIONALE: The FDA regulates products that claim to treat or cure diseases, but herbal remedies and naturopathic supplements often make general health claims without explicitly stating a treatment or cure, falling under a gray area of regulation. This lack of clear claims allows these products to avoid strict FDA regulations, making them non-FDA regulated.
QUESTION 27
nurse practice acts
CORRECT ANSWER Outlines nurse practice of what we can and cannot do. Defines the scope of practice for professional nurses
RATIONALE: A nurse practice act outlines the specific roles, responsibilities, and limitations of nurses in their profession, thereby defining the scope of practice for professional nurses. This document serves as a legal framework that guides nurses in understanding what they can and cannot do within their scope of practice, ensuring patient safety and quality care.
QUESTION 28
Durham Humphrey amendment
CORRECT ANSWER specifies which drugs require a prescription and mandates appropiate labeling
RATIONALE: The Durham Humphrey amendment clarifies the distinction between prescription and non-prescription medications by specifying which drugs require a prescription and mandating appropriate labeling to ensure safe use by consumers. This amendment is necessary because labeling serves as a crucial tool for consumers to make informed decisions about their health, and prescription-only medications require medical supervision to minimize risks associated with their use.
QUESTION 29
Kefauver-Harris Act
CORRECT ANSWER Requires adverse effects and contraindications to be provided clearly in the literature. (thalidomide tragedy of the 1950s)
RATIONALE: The Kefauver-Harris Act was enacted in response to the thalidomide tragedy, which revealed the severe consequences of inadequate safety information in pharmaceutical literature, leading to increased regulation requiring clear disclosure of adverse effects and contraindications. This legislation aimed to prevent similar tragedies by mandating more stringent safety standards for pharmaceuticals.
QUESTION 30
Drug Enforcement Agency
CORRECT ANSWER Regulates the use of controlled substances
RATIONALE: The Drug Enforcement Agency regulates the use of controlled substances, which involves enforcing laws and policies that govern the production, distribution, and possession of these substances. This role is the primary function of the DEA, as it aims to prevent the misuse and diversion of controlled substances, such as narcotics and other addictive substances.
QUESTION 31
thalidomide tragedy of the 1950s
CORRECT ANSWER a medication being provided to pregnant women in the 1950s for N/V caused birth defects for the babies
RATIONALE: The thalidomide tragedy of the 1950s is attributed to the widespread distribution of thalidomide, a medication prescribed to pregnant women to alleviate morning sickness and nausea, which caused severe birth defects in babies due to its teratogenic effects, meaning it interfered with the normal development of the embryo. This tragic outcome highlights the importance of thorough research and testing of medications during pregnancy to prevent similar catastrophes.
QUESTION 36
controlled substances act
CORRECT ANSWER also known as the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and control act. classifies drugs according to abuse potential. DEA is responsible for this. monitors all controlled substance prescriptions. monitors the distribution, storage, and use of these medications.
RATIONALE: The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act classifies drugs according to their abuse potential, which is a key concept in the Controlled Substances Act. The US Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is responsible for implementing this classification system and monitoring the distribution, storage, and use of controlled substances, making the provided statement a correct description of the Controlled Substances Act.
QUESTION 37
DEA
CORRECT ANSWER drug enforcement agency. does the controlled substance act. monitors all controlled substance prescriptions. monitors the distribution, storage, and use of these medications.
RATIONALE: The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) is the correct answer because it is the primary federal agency responsible for enforcing laws related to controlled substances in the United States. By monitoring controlled substance prescriptions, distribution, storage, and use, the DEA directly fulfills its mission to prevent the diversion of controlled pharmaceuticals and address the diversion crisis.
QUESTION 38
Controlled substances
CORRECT ANSWER drugs considered to have limited medical use or high potential for abuse or addiction
RATIONALE: The term "controlled substances" refers to a classification system that regulates certain substances based on their potential for abuse, addiction, and medical use, indicating that the substances are carefully monitored and restricted to prevent misuse. This classification is necessary due to the inherent risks associated with these substances, making regulation a crucial aspect of public health and safety.
QUESTION 39
It is illegal to possess a controlled substance without a valid prescription
CORRECT ANSWER true
RATIONALE: In the United States, controlled substances are regulated under the Controlled Substances Act, which requires individuals to possess a valid prescription to legally hold these substances. This legal framework is in place to ensure public safety and prevent the misuse or diversion of controlled substances.
QUESTION 40
controlled substances are regulated by the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
CORRECT ANSWER true
RATIONALE: The DEA has authority over the manufacture, distribution, and possession of controlled substances, as defined by the Controlled Substances Act, which categorizes substances based on their potential for abuse and medical use. This regulatory power is exercised through various means, including scheduling, licensing, and enforcement actions, demonstrating the DEA's prominent role in controlling controlled substances.
QUESTION 41
Nursing Responsibilities with controlled substances
CORRECT ANSWER Accurate narcotic counts depending on institutional policy Two nurses MUST verify the wasting of controlled substances Double lock for narcotics
RATIONALE: This answer highlights the importance of multiple verifications and secure storage protocols in managing controlled substances, ensuring accurate counts and preventing potential misuse or diversion. The emphasis on institutional policy and double locking for narcotics reflects a commitment to strict adherence to regulations and guidelines to maintain a safe and secure environment for patients and staff.
QUESTION 42
Schedule I (C-I)
CORRECT ANSWER Heroin, LSD, Ecstasy HIGH POTENTIAL for drug abuse. No medical accepted use.
RATIONALE: Schedule I substances are defined as having a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use, which aligns with the given classification for Heroin, LSD, and Ecstasy. The inclusion of these characteristics in the Schedule I category highlights the significant risks and lack of therapeutic benefits associated with these substances.
QUESTION 43
QUESTION 47
FDA Pregnancy Categories
CORRECT ANSWER Indicate a drug's potential or actual teratogenic effects to the fetus Targets females of child-bearing age
RATIONALE: This answer is correct because the FDA Pregnancy Categories system is intended to alert healthcare providers and female patients about potential risks to a developing fetus during pregnancy, highlighting the importance of evaluating medications' teratogenic effects. By targeting females of child-bearing age, the system aims to inform and protect women who may become pregnant, ensuring they receive necessary guidance on safe medication use during this critical period.
QUESTION 48
Many physicians limit use of medications during pregnancy due to potential harm to fetus
CORRECT ANSWER true
RATIONALE: Physicians limit the use of medications during pregnancy because the fetus may not be able to metabolize or process drugs in the same way as adults, potentially leading to accumulation and increased harm to the developing fetus. This is due to the fetus's immature organ systems, including the liver and kidneys, which are still developing and not yet fully capable of processing and eliminating medications.
QUESTION 49
Alcohol and caffeine are good for fetuses to a certain extent
CORRECT ANSWER false
RATIONALE: Alcohol and caffeine can have detrimental effects on fetal development, including growth restriction, birth defects, and increased risk of miscarriage, which contradicts the notion that they are beneficial. As a result, the statement that alcohol and caffeine are good for fetuses to a certain extent is inaccurate, making "false" the correct answer.
QUESTION 50
FDA Pregnancy Categories In Order from least harmful to most harmful
CORRECT ANSWER A, B, C, D, X
RATIONALE: The FDA Pregnancy Categories are a system used to classify medications based on their potential risk to a developing fetus, with Category A being the safest and Category X being the most harmful. "A, B, C, D, X" is the correct order because Category A medications have no adverse effects in animal studies and no adequate human studies to show risk, Category X is specifically contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential harm.
QUESTION 51
FDA Pregnancy Category A
CORRECT ANSWER Adequate studies in pregnant women have NOT demonstrated a risk to the fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy, and there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters.
RATIONALE: The FDA Pregnancy Category A label indicates that animal reproduction studies have not demonstrated a fetal risk, and there is no evidence of a risk in human studies. This is because Category A is assigned to drugs where adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus.
QUESTION 52
FDA Pregnancy Category B
CORRECT ANSWER Animal studies have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus but there are no adequate studies in pregnant women ,OR animal studies have shown an adverse effect, but adequate studies in pregnant women have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy and there is not evidence of risk in later trimesters.
RATIONALE: The FDA Pregnancy Category B designation indicates that animal studies have provided some level of risk assessment, but human studies are lacking, or vice versa, with animal studies showing potential harm but human trials not confirming fetal risk. The categorization acknowledges that some risk may exist, but not enough data is available from human pregnancy studies to conclusively determine its severity or impact.
QUESTION 53
FDA Pregnancy Category C
CORRECT ANSWER Animal studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus but there are no adequate studies in humans; the benefits from the use of the drug in pregnant women may be acceptable despite its potential risks, OR there are no animal reproduction studies and no adequate studies in humans
RATIONALE: The FDA Pregnancy Category C label indicates that human studies on the drug's effects during pregnancy are insufficient, but animal studies have shown adverse effects, suggesting potential risks to the fetus. This category implies that the benefits and risks of the drug use in pregnant women are not well-established, requiring careful consideration and close monitoring by healthcare providers.
QUESTION 54
FDA Pregnancy Category D
CORRECT ANSWER There is evidence of human fetal risk, but the potential benefits from the use of the drug in pregnant women may be acceptable despite its potential risks
RATIONALE: This principle is rooted in the concept of accountability, as pulling up and observing the preparation of medications allows healthcare professionals to verify the correct formulation, dosage, and administration method, thereby ensuring patient safety. By personally handling and verifying medications, professionals can take responsibility for any potential errors or adverse reactions, reducing the risk of medication-related harm.
QUESTION 59
never give a mediccation if you dont know what it's for/ what the side effects are
CORRECT ANSWER true
RATIONALE: This principle is based on the concept of informed consent, where patients have the right to make informed decisions about their healthcare by understanding the potential risks and benefits of a medication. Without knowing what a medication is for and its possible side effects, a healthcare provider cannot obtain the patient's informed consent, making it a medical error to administer the medication.
QUESTION 60
Reasons for Medication Errors
CORRECT ANSWER Lack of knowledge Faulty communication Equipment errors Calculation errors Similar drug names Lack of patient information Distractions
RATIONALE: These reasons are the correct answers because they identify common human factors and systemic issues that can lead to medication errors, such as mistakes made by healthcare professionals due to lack of information, equipment malfunctions, or distractions. By acknowledging these potential pitfalls, healthcare providers can take steps to mitigate risks and improve patient safety through better training, communication, and equipment maintenance.
QUESTION 61
You have to know your patients allergies
CORRECT ANSWER true
RATIONALE: Knowing a patient's allergies is crucial for a healthcare provider to avoid triggering life-threatening allergic reactions, such as anaphylaxis, which can be fatal if left untreated. Informed medical decisions require accurate knowledge of a patient's medical history, making awareness of allergies an essential component of patient care.
QUESTION 62
American Nurses Association
CORRECT ANSWER Code of Ethics for Nurses. main priority is patients and safety. gives code of morals and ethics.
RATIONALE: The American Nurses Association (ANA) sets the standards for nursing practice in the United States, and the Code of Ethics for Nurses reflects the profession's core values, prioritizing patient safety and well-being above all else. By establishing a code of morals and ethics, the ANA provides a framework for nurses to make informed decisions that align with the highest standards of care, ultimately promoting patient safety and trust in the nursing profession.
QUESTION 63
Prosecution possible for giving:
CORRECT ANSWER Wrong drug or dose Omitting a drug or dose Giving a medication by the wrong route
RATIONALE: Giving a medication in a manner that deviates from standard medical protocols, such as using the wrong drug or dose, or omitting a crucial element, can lead to severe consequences for patients, including harm or even death. This egregious error would likely be considered a serious breach of medical responsibility, making prosecution possible due to the potential for severe harm or loss of life.
QUESTION 64
Pharmacodynamics
CORRECT ANSWER Study of how drugs work
RATIONALE: Pharmacodynamics is the study of how drugs interact with the body, specifically their effects on physiological processes and systems, to understand how they produce their therapeutic effects or cause side effects. This involves examining the biochemical and physiological mechanisms by which drugs exert their actions, making "Study of how drugs work" an accurate and concise description of pharmacodynamics.
QUESTION 65
Primary Effects (therapeutic)
CORRECT ANSWER Predicted, intended, and desired
RATIONALE: The concepts of "Predicted, intended, and desired" align with the primary effects of a therapeutic intervention because they pertain to the expected and goal-oriented outcomes of treatment, which are the core focus of primary effects. By considering what is predicted, intended, and desired, healthcare professionals can evaluate the efficacy and effectiveness of a treatment in achieving its primary objectives, such as alleviating symptoms or improving patient outcomes.
QUESTION 66
adverse Reactions
CORRECT ANSWER unintended but harmful. some type of intervention must occur or it could cause injury in our patient. more severe that side effects. might require discontinuation of the med or dose change
RATIONALE: This answer is correct because it accurately describes an adverse reaction as an unintended but potentially harmful effect of a medical intervention that requires some type of action, such as discontinuation or dose adjustment, to prevent further harm. The mention of "more severe than side effects" effectively distinguishes adverse reactions from common, mild side effects, implying a more significant and potentially serious consequence.
QUESTION 71
toxic reactions
CORRECT ANSWER damages organs or tissues. ex- overdoses of meds.
RATIONALE: Toxic reactions occur when an external substance, such as an overdose of medication, interacts with the body in a harmful way, causing damage to organs or tissues. This interaction disrupts the normal functioning of the body, leading to adverse effects, which is a key characteristic of toxic reactions.
QUESTION 72
an overdose of tylenol can cause liver damage. this is a _____ reaction
CORRECT ANSWER toxic
RATIONALE: An overdose of Tylenol causes liver damage because the excessive amount of acetaminophen in the body overwhelms the liver's ability to process it, leading to cell damage and necrosis. This type of damage occurs due to an adverse interaction between the drug and the liver, fitting the definition of a toxic reaction, which is a harmful or poisonous effect that occurs when a substance interacts with living tissues in an abnormal or excessive way.
QUESTION 73
allergic reactions
CORRECT ANSWER range from mild to severe. some examples are hives, itching, inflammation of nasal mucosa, anaphylactic shock.
RATIONALE: This answer is correct because it accurately describes the varying levels of severity and specific manifestations of allergic reactions, including localized symptoms like hives and itching, and severe reactions like anaphylactic shock. The examples provided demonstrate a thorough understanding of the different types of allergic reactions and their potential impact on the body.
QUESTION 74
Idiosyncratic Reactions
CORRECT ANSWER unexpected, abnormal response. ex- Benadryl causing agitation
RATIONALE: Idiosyncratic Reactions refer to unusual and unpredictable adverse reactions to a medication, often occurring in a small percentage of the population, such as Benadryl causing agitation. This type of reaction is considered idiosyncratic because it cannot be explained by the typical pharmacological effects of the medication and is often unrelated to the dose or duration of treatment.
QUESTION 75
Drug interactions
CORRECT ANSWER Antagonistic drug effect Synergistic drug effect
RATIONALE: When two or more drugs interact, they can either work against each other, resulting in an antagonistic effect that reduces the desired outcome, or they can enhance each other's effects, leading to a synergistic outcome that is more significant than the sum of their individual effects. This understanding is crucial in drug interactions, as it helps to predict and manage the potential consequences of combining multiple medications.
QUESTION 76
Antagonistic drug effect
CORRECT ANSWER -two drugs that cancel the effects of each other out -Ex: when you take morphine and narcan. Narcan eliminates effects of morphine
RATIONALE: An antagonistic drug effect occurs when two drugs interact in such a way that one drug inhibits or reverses the action of the other drug, often resulting in a neutral or opposing effect. In the case of morphine and Narcan, Narcan's ability to reverse morphine's effects demonstrates an antagonistic relationship, where Narcan acts as an antagonist by counteracting morphine's opioid receptor activation.
QUESTION 77
Synergistic drug effect (additive)
CORRECT ANSWER when one drug enhances the effect of the other. ex- when you give oxycodone-acetaminophen but you also give ibuprofen, so the pain relief is enhanced.
RATIONALE: The term "additive" in the context of synergistic drug effect refers to a situation where two drugs produce an effect greater than the sum of their individual effects, which is the case when oxycodone-acetaminophen and ibuprofen are combined, enhancing pain relief. This occurs because the mechanisms of action of the two drugs complement each other, resulting in a more significant therapeutic outcome than would be expected from using either drug alone.
