NUR 113 ATI Exam NCLEX-Style Questions and correct detailed Answers | 2026 Updates | 100%, Exams of Nursing

INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — Updated 2026 NUR 113 Hard NCLEX ATI Exam featuring 50 challenging ATI and NCLEX-style nursing questions with detailed answers and rationales, patient care scenarios, pharmacology review, prioritization concepts, and comprehensive nursing exam preparation material designed to strengthen critical thinking and boost exam success.ati questions, nclex exam, nursing review, exam answers, rn notes, study guide, practice questions,NUR 113 ATI Exam, Hard NCLEX Questions, ATI Practice Questions, Nursing Exam PDF, RN Study Guide, NCLEX Questions Answers, Nursing Practice Exam, ATI Rationales, Nursing Test Bank, Pharmacology Questions, Patient Care Review, Prioritization Questions, Nursing Review Notes, RN Exam Questions, Nursing Prep Guide, Nursing Study Notes, Nursing Exams 2026, Comprehensive Nursing Review, Exam Answers PDF, ATI Nursing Review

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NUR 113 ATI Exam NCLEX-Style Questions and correct detailed
Answers | 2026 Updates | 100% correct
1. A 68-year-old man with BPH has progressive urinary retention. Which symptom is the most concerning and
requires immediate intervention?
A. Nocturia
B. Bladder distention with suprapubic pain
C. Weak urinary stream
D. Dribbling between voids
2. A postoperative TURP patient has continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). The nurse notes bright red urine with large
clots and decreased output. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Increase the irrigation rate
B. Notify the surgeon immediately
C. Assess catheter patency and irrigate manually
D. Stop the CBI
3. A child with encopresis presents with fecal impaction and overflow stool. The priority nursing action is:
A. Implement scheduled toileting and stool softener
B. Teach dietary fiber increase only
C. Refer to psychiatry
D. Begin punishment-based behavior modification
4. A patient with a suspected UTI reports flank pain and fever. Which diagnostic test will best differentiate upper UTI
(pyelonephritis) from lower UTI?
A. Urinalysis
B. Renal ultrasound
C. Urine culture and sensitivity
D. CBC with differential
5. A client with nephrolithiasis (kidney stone) has severe unilateral flank pain, nausea, and gross hematuria. Which
instruction is highest priority? A. Limit fluids until pain subsides
B. Strain all urine
C. Increase calcium intakeD. Take stool softener
6. A patient with hydronephrosis due to ureteral obstruction is at risk for which acute complication?
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Postrenal acute kidney injury
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Minimal change disease
7. A nurse teaching a patient with BPH about tamsulosin should include which important teaching point?
A. It may cause orthostatic hypotension—rise slowly
B. It reduces prostate size over months
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NUR 113 ATI Exam NCLEX-Style Questions and correct detailed

Answers | 2026 Updates | 100% correct

  1. A 68-year-old man with BPH has progressive urinary retention. Which symptom is the most concerning and requires immediate intervention? A. Nocturia B. Bladder distention with suprapubic pain C. Weak urinary stream D. Dribbling between voids
  2. A postoperative TURP patient has continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). The nurse notes bright red urine with large clots and decreased output. What is the nurse's first action? A. Increase the irrigation rate B. Notify the surgeon immediately C. Assess catheter patency and irrigate manually D. Stop the CBI
  3. A child with encopresis presents with fecal impaction and overflow stool. The priority nursing action is: A. Implement scheduled toileting and stool softener B. Teach dietary fiber increase only C. Refer to psychiatry D. Begin punishment-based behavior modification
  4. A patient with a suspected UTI reports flank pain and fever. Which diagnostic test will best differentiate upper UTI (pyelonephritis) from lower UTI? A. Urinalysis B. Renal ultrasound C. Urine culture and sensitivity D. CBC with differential
  5. A client with nephrolithiasis (kidney stone) has severe unilateral flank pain, nausea, and gross hematuria. Which instruction is highest priority? A. Limit fluids until pain subsides B. Strain all urine C. Increase calcium intakeD. Take stool softener
  6. A patient with hydronephrosis due to ureteral obstruction is at risk for which acute complication? A. Acute tubular necrosis B. Postrenal acute kidney injury C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Minimal change disease
  7. A nurse teaching a patient with BPH about tamsulosin should include which important teaching point? A. It may cause orthostatic hypotension—rise slowly B. It reduces prostate size over months

lOMoAR cPSD| 61371432 C. It causes hair loss D. It is teratogenic

  1. (NGN — Case) A 24-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic discomfort. UA shows positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. She is pregnant, 10 weeks. Which antibiotic is safest to treat a lower UTI in pregnancy? A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole B. Ciprofloxacin C. Nitrofurantoin (short course)D. Tetracycline
  2. A child diagnosed with enuresis will start bed alarm therapy. Which parental instruction is most appropriate? A. Use alarm for 1 night then evaluate B. Expect immediate results within 2–3 nights C. Combine with fluid restriction and positive reinforcement D. Use punishment for wetting episodes
  3. A client with COPD shows a respiratory rate of 28, O2 sat 92% on 2 L nasal cannula, and confusion. The nurse suspects CO2 retention. Which action is most appropriate? A. Increase oxygen to 6 L B. Call respiratory therapy for ABG and consider noninvasive ventilation C. Encourage deep breathing exercises only D. Instruct to use pursed-lip breathing and discharge home
  4. A patient with COPD has chronic hypercapnia and relies on hypoxic drive. Which statement by the nurse is correct when administering oxygen? A. Provide the highest oxygen possible to normalize SpO B. Use lowest FiO2 to keep PaO2 adequate and monitor closely C. Oxygen will not affect respiratory drive in COPD D. Remove oxygen during sleep to prevent dependence
  5. (NGN — Cloze/Select-All) Select all appropriate initial interventions for a child with severe bronchiolitis (RSV): A. Nasal suctioning B. High-flow oxygen or CPAP as needed C. Routine antibiotics D. Hydration and small frequent feedsE. Corticosteroids routinely
  6. A 5-year-old with asthma uses albuterol MDI. Which teaching demonstrates correct technique? A. Shake the inhaler, exhale fully, actuate while inhaling slowly, hold breath 10 sec B. Take rapid shallow breaths while actuating C. Use as a daily controller medicationD. Do not use spacer with MDI
  7. A patient with severe asthma attack has silent chest on auscultation and poor air movement. The priority action is: A. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine and prepare for intubation B. Continue albuterol nebulizer only C. Encourage coughing and deep breathing D. Obtain sputum culture
  8. (NGN — Matrix) Match each cystic fibrosis management intervention with its rationale:
    • Chest physiotherapy → ___
    • Pancreatic enzymes with meals → ___
    • High-calorie diet → ___ Options:

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  1. A newborn's APGAR at 1 minute is 6 with weak cry and some respiratory effort. Nurse notes nasal flaring and grunting. What immediate steps should nurse take? A. Routine care only B. Begin positive-pressure ventilation and warming C. Suction mouth and nose, provide oxygen, stimulate, and assess D. Intubate immediately without further assessment
  2. A client with bacterial conjunctivitis asks whether contagious period ends after starting antibiotics. The nurse replies: A. After 24 hours of antibiotics most bacterial conjunctivitis is less contagious B. After 5 days it is still highly contagious C. It is non-contagious once redness decreases D. It is contagious for 2 weeks regardless of therapy
  3. A child with recurrent otitis media is being considered for tympanostomy tubes. Which finding supports this intervention? A. Single episode of otitis media with effusion B. Recurrent acute otitis media (≥3 episodes in 6 months) C. Chronic sensorineural hearing lossD. Otitis externa repeated
  4. A UTI patient has rising creatinine and decreased urine output after a ureteral stone obstructed both kidneys. What type of AKI is this? A. Prerenal B. Intrarenal C. Postrenal D. Functional
  5. A nurse teaching a client about phenazopyridine (Pyridium) should include which information? A. It will treat the underlying infection B. It may turn urine orange/red and can stain clothing C. It is safe in pregnancy throughout D. It should be used for at least 2 weeks
    1. (NGN — Cloze) Place these steps in priority order for managing a client with acute respiratory distress from COPD exacerbation: ___ Administer bronchodilator (nebulized) ___ Obtain arterial blood gas (ABG) ___ Position upright and apply supplemental oxygen cautiously ___ Prepare for possible intubation
    2. A client with active TB asks about contacts. Which statement is correct? A. All household contacts should receive immediate INH preventive therapy without evaluation B. Contacts should be screened with PPD or IGRA and CXR as indicated C. Only symptomatic contacts need evaluation D. Children do not require screening
  6. A patient on long-term corticosteroids for severe asthma is at risk for which adverse effect requiring monitoring? A. Hypoglycemia B. Osteoporosis and hyperglycemia C. Hypotension D. Hyperkalemia
  1. A child with severe dehydration due to vomiting and concurrent UTI shows decreased urine output and tachycardia. Which lab test most quickly assesses kidney perfusion? A. BUN/creatinine ratio B. Serum creatinine alone C. Urine specific gravity D. CBC
  2. A nurse is caring for a client with pleuritic chest pain and sputum-producing pneumonia. Which intervention helps prevent atelectasis and improves oxygenation? A. Early ambulation and incentive spirometry B. Bed rest and cough suppression C. High-dose opioids for comfort D. Restrict fluids
  3. A patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) has sudden hypoxia and chest pain. Which immediate diagnostic will the nurse anticipate? A. Chest X-ray B. V/Q scan or CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) C. Sputum culture D. Echocardiogram only
  4. A client with chronic kidney stones is counseled about prevention. Which dietary advice is appropriate for calcium oxalate stones? A. Avoid all calcium in diet B. Maintain normal calcium intake and decrease oxalate-rich foods C. Increase oxalate intake to bind calcium D. Drink only 500 mL fluid/day
  5. A patient with severe community-acquired pneumonia is started on broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which nursing action will help prevent antibiotic-associated C. difficile? A. Encourage handwashing with soap and water and monitor for diarrhea B. Use alcohol-based hand rub only C. Discontinue all probioticsD. Limit fluids
  6. A client with emphysema demonstrates pursed-lip breathing. Which physiological effect is expected? A. Increased airway collapse B. Decreased alveolar pressure and increased CO2 retention C. Prolonged exhalation to reduce air trapping and improve ventilation D. Immediate cure of emphysema
  7. A patient with suspected nephrolithiasis undergoes non-contrast CT KUB. Which nursing instruction is important before the CT? A. Ensure patient is NPO for 24 hours B. Remove jewelry and verify pregnancy status in women of childbearing age C. Give oral contrast immediately before scan D. No need to assess kidney function
  8. A client receiving inhaled corticosteroid for asthma should be taught to: A. Rinse mouth after use to prevent thrush B. Use it only for acute bronchospasm C. Stop therapy once symptoms resolveD. Double dose if a dose is missed
  9. A patient with suspected sepsis from pneumonia has lactic acid elevated. Which nursing implication is correct?

B. Administer naloxone per protocol and stimulate client C. Call code blue immediately D. Place client in Trendelenburg position

  1. A child with streptococcal pharyngitis is treated with penicillin. Which teaching prevents spread? A. Child can return to daycare after 24 hours of antibiotics and fever-free B. Child must stay home for 7 days regardless C. Antibiotics are unnecessary for strep D. Avoid handwashing
  2. (NGN — Sorting/Bow-Tie) You are prioritizing interventions for a client admitted with acute hypoxemic respiratory failure due to pneumonia. Sort these into Immediate, Urgent, and Routine:
    • Start high-flow oxygen and assess response
    • Obtain ABG and CXR
    • Initiate broad-spectrum IV antibiotics
    • Encourage incentive spirometry and ambulation when stable
  3. A patient with chronic bronchitis has edema and elevated jugular venous pressure. What complication is indicated? A. Right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) B. Left ventricular failure C. Pulmonary embolismD. Pericarditis

ANSWERS & RATIONALES (Do NOT look until finished):

  1. B — Bladder distention with suprapubic pain indicates significant retention and risk for injury/infection; requires promptbladder decompression.
  2. C — Assess catheter patency and irrigate manually to remove clots; increasing irrigation without checking patency canworsen obstruction.
  3. A — Scheduled toileting and stool softeners address fecal impaction and retrain bowel habits; punishment is contraindicated.
  4. B — Renal ultrasound can detect upper tract involvement; urine culture is important but imaging distinguishes upper vs lowerinvolvement.
  5. B — Straining urine helps retrieve stones for analysis; increasing fluids is usually recommended but not during severe painuntil assessed.
  6. B — Obstruction causing hydronephrosis leads to postrenal AKI if both kidneys or a solitary kidney are obstructed.
  7. A — Alpha blockers like tamsulosin can cause orthostatic hypotension; they relax smooth muscle but do not shrink theprostate (finasteride does).
  8. C — Nitrofurantoin is often used in pregnancy for lower UTIs (avoid in first trimester?—generally considered relatively safe inpregnancy except at term); fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines are contraindicated; TMP-SMX is avoided in first trimester and near term—always check current guidelines before prescribing.
  9. C — Bed alarms work best with adjuncts: fluid restriction at night, scheduled voiding, and positive reinforcement; results takeweeks.
  10. B — Confusion suggests CO2 retention or hypoxia; obtain ABG and consider noninvasive ventilation; increasing O withoutassessment can depress hypoxic drive in chronic CO2 retainers.
  11. B — Use the lowest effective FiO2 to maintain adequate oxygenation while avoiding suppression of respiratory drive inchronic hypercapnia.

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  1. A, B, D — Nasal suctioning, oxygen/respiratory support, and hydration are indicated; antibiotics and routine steroids are notuniversally indicated for RSV.
  2. A — Proper MDI technique involves shaking, full exhalation, slow inhalation during actuation, and breath-hold to maximizedrug deposition.
  3. A — Silent chest with poor air movement indicates near-fatal asthma; subcutaneous epinephrine and preparing forintubation/emergency airway management are necessary.
  4. Chest physiotherapy → 1 (Improve airway clearance); Pancreatic enzymes → 2 (Aid digestion); High-calorie diet → 3 (Provide energy).
  5. B — CF patients are at risk for spontaneous pneumothorax from ruptured subpleural blebs; unilateral decreased breathsounds and acute distress suggest pneumothorax.
  6. B — Sudden hypotension and pleuritic chest pain post-op suggests pulmonary embolism; immediate stabilization anddiagnostic workup required.
  7. B — INH can cause hepatotoxicity and peripheral neuropathy; baseline LFTs and B6 supplementation risk assessment areimportant.
  8. B — Rifampin commonly causes orange-red discoloration of body fluids; this is harmless but will stain contact lenses andclothing.
  9. A, C, E — Bulb suctioning, smaller frequent feeds, and watching for increased work of breathing are correct; keeping infantupright for prolonged periods and OTC expectorants are inappropriate.
  10. A, B, D — Airborne precautions: negative-pressure room, N95 respirator, limit transport and have patient wear a surgicalmask if transported.
  11. A — Sepsis bundle: obtain blood cultures then administer broad-spectrum antibiotics and begin aggressive IV fluidresuscitation.
  12. C — Suction, provide oxygen, stimulate, and assess; PPV is for apnea or inadequate respirations after initial stimulation.
  13. A — Bacterial conjunctivitis is often less contagious after 24 hours of antibiotics, though clinical improvement varies; handhygiene remains essential.
  14. B — Recurrent acute otitis media (3+ in 6 months) is an indication for tympanostomy tubes to prevent hearing loss andrecurrent infections.
  15. C — Obstruction of urine outflow causing rise in creatinine is postrenal AKI.
  16. B — Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that colors urine orange/red and may stain clothing; it does not treat infectionand use is short term.
  17. Order: Position & cautious O2 → Administer bronchodilator → Obtain ABG → Prepare for intubation. Rationale: Support airway/oxygenation, bronchodilation, assess gas exchange, and anticipate airway support.
  18. B — Contacts should be screened (PPD/IGRA and cxr) and then treated or observed per results; blanket INH withoutevaluation is inappropriate.
  19. B — Long-term corticosteroids increase risk for osteoporosis, hyperglycemia, infection, and adrenal suppression.
  20. C — Urine specific gravity gives rapid bedside information about urine concentration and perfusion; BUN/Cr ratio is helpfulbut not as immediate.
  21. A — Early ambulation and incentive spirometry prevent atelectasis and improve ventilation after pneumonia.
  22. B — CT pulmonary angiography or V/Q scan are diagnostic for PE; CXR is usually initial but not diagnostic for PE.
  23. B — For calcium oxalate stones, maintain normal dietary calcium while reducing oxalate-rich foods (spinach, nuts, tea);excessive restriction of calcium can increase stone risk.
  24. A — Handwashing with soap and water is crucial to prevent C. difficile spread; monitor for diarrhea and contact precautionsas indicated.