Download NV C 7 Elevation Conveyance Certification Review Guide [NVC7] and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Guide [NVC7]
Question 1. Which Nevada Revised Statute (NRS) defines the scope of the C‑7 elevator contractor license? A) NRS 624 B) NRS 630 C) NRS 617 D) NRS 650 Answer: A Explanation: NRS 624 specifically outlines the qualifications, duties, and legal boundaries for C‑ 7 licensed contractors in Nevada. Question 2. Before beginning work in an elevator pit, a technician must first verify which of the following safety devices? A) Pit ladder lock B) Stop switch C) Emergency power off (EPO) button E) All of the above Answer: E Explanation: Pit ladder locks, stop switches, and EPO buttons are all required to be verified to ensure safe entry and exit from the pit. Question 3. The required fire‑resistance rating for hoistway walls in a high‑rise building is: A) 30 minutes B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 3 hours Answer: C
Guide [NVC7]
Explanation: Nevada codes mandate a minimum 2‑hour fire‑resistance rating for hoistway walls in high‑rise structures to contain fire spread. Question 4. Which type of hoistway venting is required to maintain ambient temperature for solid‑state electronics? A) Natural convection only B) Mechanical exhaust fans with thermostatic control C) Passive vents with no fans D) None of the above Answer: B Explanation: Mechanical exhaust fans controlled by temperature sensors ensure the machine room stays within the operating range for electronic components. Question 5. The primary purpose of a “refuge space” at the bottom of a hoistway is to: A) Store spare parts B) Provide a safe area for a technician if the car stops unexpectedly C) House the main controller D) Accommodate a secondary car Answer: B Explanation: A refuge space offers a protected zone for personnel to wait safely during a car malfunction or emergency stop. Question 6. Guide rail bracket spacing is typically limited to: A) 24 inches B) 30 inches C) 36 inches
Guide [NVC7]
C) Requiring a larger pit D) Using a belt instead of a rope Answer: B Explanation: Gearless machines eliminate the reduction gear, providing a direct connection between the motor and the sheave for smoother, high‑speed operation. Question 10. The factor of safety for steel wire rope in a traction system is generally: A) 3. B) 4. C) 5. D) 6. Answer: C Explanation: A factor of safety of 5.0 is commonly applied to steel wire ropes to ensure they can handle dynamic loads and wear. Question 11. Which type of safety gear engages on the car frame when the governor trips? A) Type A – cam‑actuated clutch B) Type B – spring‑loaded pawl C) Type C – hydraulic‑actuated lock D) All of the above, depending on design Answer: D Explanation: Safety gear can be Type A, B, or C; the specific mechanism depends on the manufacturer’s design and application. Question 12. In a hydraulic elevator, the “holeless” system is characterized by: A) Jacks located beneath the car
Guide [NVC7]
B) Jacks mounted on the side of the car, eliminating a pit hole C) Use of a roped suspension to increase travel height D) A submerged pump in the machine room Answer: B Explanation: Holeless hydraulic elevators place the jacks on the car sides, removing the need for a deep pit. Question 13. The primary function of a “scavenger” system in hydraulic elevators is to: A) Capture leaked oil and return it to the reservoir B) Increase hydraulic pressure during peak demand C) Provide backup power to the pump D) Cool the hydraulic fluid Answer: A Explanation: Scavenger systems collect oil that leaks from the cylinder and return it to the reservoir, preventing environmental contamination. Question 14. An anti‑creep device in a hydraulic elevator is used to: A) Prevent the car from moving when doors are open B) Maintain the car level with the floor during loading/unloading C) Reduce pump noise D) Increase travel speed during peak traffic Answer: B Explanation: Anti‑creep devices control the hydraulic flow to keep the car level, eliminating unwanted movement when the car is stationary. Question 15. Which of the following is NOT a typical safety device on an escalator?
Guide [NVC7]
Question 18. Which voltage level is most common for the main power supply to an elevator traction motor? A) 120 V AC B) 208 V AC C) 480 V AC D) 600 V AC Answer: C Explanation: Traction motors typically operate on a 480 V three‑phase AC supply, providing sufficient power for high‑rise applications. Question 19. In an elevator controller, “Selective Collective” operation means: A) Cars are assigned to specific floors based on destination dispatch B) Passengers select a floor, and the controller groups cars to serve them efficiently C) Only one car operates at a time D) All cars respond to every call simultaneously Answer: B Explanation: Selective collective groups elevators based on passenger demand, optimizing service while allowing passengers to select desired floors. Question 20. Phase II of the Firefighter’s Emergency Operation (FEO) allows the fire department to: A) Recall the car to the lobby only B) Operate the car from any floor to a safe floor without power C) Manually open doors on any floor D) Shut down the entire building’s power
Guide [NVC7]
Answer: B Explanation: Phase II permits firefighters to move the car without building power, using the dedicated emergency circuit for rescue operations. Question 21. Proper hanging of traveling cables in a hoistway requires a minimum loop diameter of: A) 2 inches B) 4 inches C) 6 inches D) 8 inches Answer: C Explanation: A 6‑inch minimum loop diameter prevents excessive stress and fatigue on the cables during elevator travel. Question 22. The kinetic energy limit for an elevator door operator to close a door safely is: A) 5 ft‑lb B) 10 ft‑lb C) 15 ft‑lb D) 20 ft‑lb Answer: B Explanation: Door operators must limit kinetic energy to 10 ft‑lb to reduce the risk of injury and door damage. Question 23. Under the A17.1 Maintenance Control Program, Category 1 testing must be performed: A) Every six months B) Annually, no‑load test only
Guide [NVC7]
A) 4 ft B) 6 ft C) 8 ft D) 10 ft Answer: B Explanation: OSHA mandates fall protection for work performed at or above 6 ft above a lower level, which includes the hoistway interior. Question 27. The “Stop Switch” in pit safety is designed to: A) De‑energize the motor only B) Cut power to all elevator equipment within the hoistway C) Activate the emergency alarm only D) Lock the car doors Answer: B Explanation: The pit stop switch disconnects power to all hoistway equipment, ensuring a safe environment for personnel. Question 28. Which of the following is a required component of a confined‑space entry plan for elevator pits? A) Atmospheric monitoring equipment B) Fire extinguisher only C) Portable generator D) None of the above Answer: A Explanation: Confined‑space entry plans must include atmospheric monitoring for oxygen, hazardous gases, and combustible vapors.
Guide [NVC7]
Question 29. In a traction system, the “compensation chain” is used to: A) Balance the weight of the suspension ropes in high‑rise applications B) Provide emergency power to the motor C) Act as a secondary safety gear D) Reduce noise in the machine room Answer: A Explanation: Compensation chains offset the weight of long suspension ropes, preventing excessive load on the motor and counterweight. Question 30. The typical oil‑to‑water ratio for a hydraulic elevator’s scavenger system is: A) 1: B) 1: C) 1: D) 1: Answer: B Explanation: A 1:5 oil‑to‑water ratio effectively separates oil from runoff while allowing efficient recycling. Question 31. For an escalator located in a casino, the minimum required clearance between the moving step and the side balustrade is: A) 1 in B) 2 in C) 3 in D) 4 in Answer: C
Guide [NVC7]
D) None of the above Answer: A Explanation: EPS is required to provide enough power to move the car to the nearest floor and safely open the doors for passenger egress. Question 35. Which type of hydraulic pump is most commonly used in low‑rise hydraulic elevators? A) Gear pump B) Vane pump C) Piston pump D) Centrifugal pump Answer: C Explanation: Piston pumps provide the high pressure needed for hydraulic elevators while maintaining efficiency. Question 36. The “Leveling Valve” in a hydraulic elevator controls: A) The speed of the car during travel B) The final approach speed to ensure a smooth stop at each floor C) The temperature of the hydraulic fluid D) The door opening sequence Answer: B Explanation: Leveling valves modulate flow near the end of travel to achieve precise leveling at each floor. Question 37. For a traction elevator, the “Brake Torque” must be at least: A) 1.5 times the rated motor torque
Guide [NVC7]
B) 2.0 times the rated motor torque C) 2.5 times the rated motor torque D) 3.0 times the rated motor torque Answer: C Explanation: Brake torque is required to be at least 2.5 times the motor’s rated torque to safely stop the car under maximum load. Question 38. Which of the following is a required feature of an elevator’s “Door Operator” to meet Nevada safety standards? A) Adjustable closing force up to 100 lb B) Infrared light curtain that stops the door if obstructed C) Manual hand‑crank backup only D) Voice‑activated opening Answer: B Explanation: Infrared light curtains detect obstructions and halt door closing, preventing passenger injury. Question 39. The “Recall” function in a fire service mode of an elevator controller is used to: A) Bring the car to the main lobby for evacuation B) Disable all safety devices C) Open all doors simultaneously on each floor D) Shut down the machine room fan Answer: A Explanation: The recall function moves the car to a designated floor (usually the lobby) to allow safe passenger evacuation.
Guide [NVC7]
Explanation: A 0.10‑inch clearance ensures smooth travel while preventing excessive wear or binding. Question 43. Which of the following is NOT a permissible method for securing a counterweight in a traction elevator? A) Welding the counterweight to the guide rail B) Using a mechanical locking bracket C) Bolting a steel plate to the counterweight frame D) Installing a safety latch that engages during maintenance Answer: A Explanation: Welding the counterweight to the guide rail is prohibited because it eliminates the ability to move the counterweight for maintenance and creates a hazard. Question 44. The “Governor Spring” must be inspected for wear at least: A) Every 6 months B) Annually C) Every 2 years D) Every 5 years Answer: B Explanation: Annual inspection of the governor spring ensures it will function correctly to detect overspeed conditions. Question 45. In a machine‑room‑less (MRL) traction elevator, the motor is typically located: A) In the pit B) At the top of the hoistway, attached to the sheave C) In a separate building
Guide [NVC7]
D) On the car itself Answer: B Explanation: MRL elevators place the motor and drive sheave at the top of the hoistway, eliminating a separate machine room. Question 46. The “Emergency Stop” button on an escalator must be located: A) Only at the top landing B) Only at the bottom landing C) At both top and bottom landings, within reach of passengers D) Inside the machine room only Answer: C Explanation: For passenger safety, emergency stop buttons are required at both ends of the escalator where users can easily reach them. Question 47. Which of the following is a required feature of a “door‑closing timer” in a modern elevator? A) Adjustable from 0 to 10 seconds B) Fixed at 2 seconds for all installations C) Must be programmable to meet ADA requirements for maximum door opening time D) No timer is required if the car has a destination‑dispatch system Answer: C Explanation: Door‑closing timers must be programmable to ensure compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) for adequate opening time. Question 48. The “Traveling Cable” for a traction elevator must be protected from: A) Moisture only
Guide [NVC7]
Question 51. The “Safety Gear” on the car frame is required to stop the car within a distance of: A) 12 in B) 24 in C) 36 in D) 48 in Answer: B Explanation: Safety gear must engage and bring the car to a stop within 24 inches to protect passengers and equipment. Question 52. Which of the following is the correct sequence for a “Lockout/Tagout” (LOTO) procedure on an elevator motor? A) De‑energize, lock, tag, verify zero voltage, then work B) Tag, lock, de‑energize, verify zero voltage, then work C) Verify zero voltage, lock, tag, then de‑energize D) De‑energize, verify zero voltage, lock, tag, then work Answer: D Explanation: Proper LOTO requires de‑energizing, confirming zero voltage, applying lock and tag, then commencing work. Question 53. In a traction elevator, the “Sheave” must be inspected for wear at least every: A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 24 months D) 36 months Answer: B
Guide [NVC7]
Explanation: Annual inspection of the sheave ensures groove integrity and prevents rope damage. Question 54. The “Energy Efficiency” requirement for new elevators in Nevada mandates a minimum: A) 10 % reduction in power consumption compared to 2010 models B) 20 % reduction in power consumption compared to 2010 models C) 30 % reduction in power consumption compared to 2010 models D) No specific reduction; only compliance with ASME A17.1 is required Answer: B Explanation: Nevada adopts the 20 % energy‑efficiency improvement target for new elevator installations. Question 55. Which of the following is a valid reason to perform a “Full‑Load Test” on a hydraulic elevator? A) After any change to the hydraulic fluid B) Every three years as part of routine maintenance C) Only after a major repair to the pump D) Both A and C Answer: D Explanation: Full‑load tests are required after fluid changes or major pump repairs to verify system performance under load. Question 56. The “Car Operating Panel” (COP) must be located at a height not exceeding: A) 36 in above the floor B) 48 in above the floor C) 60 in above the floor
