Download Onboard Service Ultimate Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Question 1. Which phonetic alphabet word corresponds to the letter “M”? A) November B) Mike C) Lima D) Sierra Answer: B Explanation: In the NATO phonetic alphabet, “M” is represented by “Mike”. Question 2. A flight plan shows a cruising altitude of FL350. What is the approximate pressure altitude in feet? A) 35,000 feet B) 33,000 feet C) 30,000 feet D) 40,000 feet Answer: A Explanation: Flight levels are expressed in hundreds of feet; FL350 equals 35, feet pressure altitude. Question 3. Which of the following aerodynamic forces primarily provides lift for an aircraft? A) Thrust B) Drag C) Bernoulli pressure differential D) Weight Answer: C Explanation: Lift is generated by the pressure difference above and below the wing, described by Bernoulli’s principle. Question 4. At what cabin altitude does the FAA recommend supplemental oxygen for passengers?
A) 5,000 feet B) 8,000 feet C) 10,000 feet D) 12,500 feet Answer: D Explanation: The FAA requires supplemental oxygen for passengers when cabin altitude exceeds 12,500 feet. Question 5. Which organization is primarily responsible for issuing airworthiness certificates in Europe? A) FAA B) EASA C) ICAO D) CAA Answer: B Explanation: The European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) issues airworthiness certificates for European aircraft. Question 6. In a narrow-body aircraft, where is the most common location for the emergency exit “Type C”? A) Overwing B) Mid-cabin side wall C) Front door D) Rear door Answer: B Explanation: Type C exits are usually located on the sidewalls of the cabin, midway between the front and rear doors. Question 7. Which item is NOT typically found in the galley of a wide-body aircraft? A) Coffee maker B) Portable oxygen cylinder
Answer: B Explanation: Class B fires involve flammable liquids, gases, or greases, including jet fuel. Question 11. In the event of a rapid decompression, the first action for a crew member is to: A) Open the cockpit windows B) Deploy the slide C) Don the drop-down oxygen mask and secure it D) Call ground control Answer: C Explanation: Rapid decompression requires immediate use of the drop-down oxygen mask to ensure adequate oxygen. Question 12. The “locked-door policy” in cockpit security primarily aims to: A) Prevent passengers from entering the cockpit during turbulence B) Keep the cockpit door closed during take-off only C) Ensure only authorized crew can access the flight deck at all times D) Allow cabin crew to retrieve flight-deck documents quickly Answer: C Explanation: The locked-door policy mandates that the cockpit door remain locked and only be opened for authorized personnel. Question 13. Which of the following is the correct compression ratio for standard CPR on an adult? A) 1: B) 2: C) 3: D) 5: Answer: B Explanation: Adult CPR requires a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths, which is a 2:1 ratio.
Question 14. An AED should be applied to a passenger who is: A) Conscious and breathing normally B) Experiencing a slow heart rate but stable C) Unresponsive with no pulse D) Having a mild allergic reaction Answer: C Explanation: An AED is indicated for a shock-able rhythm in an unresponsive person with no detectable pulse. Question 15. Hypoxia at altitude is most commonly caused by: A) Low cabin temperature B) Low partial pressure of oxygen C) Excessive carbon dioxide levels D) High humidity Answer: B Explanation: At high altitude, the partial pressure of oxygen decreases, leading to hypoxia. Question 16. Which symptom is NOT typical of hyperventilation? A) Tingling of fingertips B) Dizziness C) Decreased heart rate D) Light-headedness Answer: C Explanation: Hyperventilation usually causes an increased heart rate, not a decrease. Question 17. During an in-flight seizure, the crew should first: A) Administer oral medication from the EMK B) Restrain the passenger’s limbs tightly
Answer: B Explanation: “VGNML” is the standard code for a vegan meal free of animal products, including dairy. Question 21. When tracking duty-free liquor sales, the crew must: A) Record only sales over $ B) Include the passenger’s seat number and receipt copy C) Report totals to the ground crew at the end of the flight D) Keep the inventory confidential from the cabin crew Answer: C Explanation: Duty-free sales are reconciled and reported at flight completion for accounting. Question 22. A passenger with reduced mobility (PRM) requires a wheelchair at the gate. The crew’s first responsibility is to: A) Offer the passenger a seat in the emergency exit row B) Ensure the wheelchair is positioned in the cabin for quick access C) Coordinate with ground handling to have the wheelchair ready upon boarding D) Provide a blanket for extra comfort Answer: C Explanation: Coordination with ground handling ensures the wheelchair is available at the gate for timely boarding. Question 23. An “unaccompanied minor” (UMNR) should be seated: A) In the bulkhead row for easier supervision B) In any seat the passenger prefers C) Near the galley for access to snacks D) In the rear of the aircraft away from the crew Answer: A Explanation: Bulkhead seats allow crew to monitor the minor more closely and provide easier access.
Question 24. Which de-escalation phrase is most effective when dealing with an “air-rage” passenger? A) “You’re being unreasonable, calm down.” B) “I understand you’re upset; let me see how I can help.” C) “If you continue, I will have to involve security.” D) “Please keep your seatbelt fastened.” Answer: B Explanation: Acknowledging the passenger’s feelings and offering assistance helps reduce tension. Question 25. In many cultures, a firm handshake is considered: A) Rude and aggressive B) A sign of respect and confidence C) Unnecessary in formal settings D) A sign of weakness Answer: B Explanation: Across numerous cultures, a firm handshake conveys confidence and respect. Question 26. The most appropriate tone for a routine public-announcement (PA) regarding seat-belt signs is: A) Whispered and informal B) Loud and authoritative C) Calm, clear, and moderately paced D) Monotonous and robotic Answer: C Explanation: A calm, clear, moderately paced delivery ensures passengers understand and comply. Question 27. During “sterile flight-deck” phases, cabin crew should:
D) Carry luggage into the cockpit Answer: B Explanation: Crew must be able to open heavy exit doors and handle service carts safely, especially in turbulence. Question 31. Which ICAO document defines the standard 24-hour clock usage for flight operations? A) Annex 1 – Personnel Licensing B) Annex 6 – Operation of Aircraft C) Annex 11 – Air Traffic Services D) Annex 13 – Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation Answer: B Explanation: ICAO Annex 6 outlines operational procedures, including the use of the 24 - hour clock. Question 32. The “drop-down” oxygen mask is activated by: A) Pulling the mask forward when cabin pressure drops below 10,000 feet B) Pressing a button on the overhead panel C) Automatic deployment at 8,000 feet cabin altitude D) Manual release by the flight crew only Answer: A Explanation: Passengers pull the mask toward them, which triggers the flow of oxygen when pressure falls. Question 33. Which of the following is a Class D fire? A) Burning paper B) Jet fuel spill C) Lithium-ion battery fire D) Flammable metal shavings Answer: C
Explanation: Class D fires involve combustible metals; however, lithium-ion battery fires are categorized as Class D in aviation contexts. Question 34. When a passenger reports a “sick bag” after a flight, the crew should: A) Dispose of the bag in the lavatory waste bin B) Store it in the galley for later cleaning C) Place it in the designated waste container for bio-hazardous material D) Hand it to the next passenger for use Answer: C Explanation: Used vomit bags are considered bio-hazardous and must be placed in the appropriate container. Question 35. The emergency slide must be inspected for proper operation at least: A) Every 24 hours of flight time B) Every 30 days or 100 flight cycles, whichever occurs first C) Every 6 months regardless of usage D) Only after a deployment event Answer: B Explanation: Regulations require slide inspections at intervals of 30 days or 100 flight cycles, whichever comes first. **Question 36. Which statement best describes the role of the “Purser” on a flight? ** A) Primary pilot for short-haul flights B) Head of cabin crew, responsible for documentation and service quality C) Engineer responsible for aircraft systems checks D) Ground-handling supervisor Answer: B Explanation: The Purser leads the cabin crew, handles paperwork, and ensures service standards.
A) Verify the door is armed, latch engaged, and indicator shows “Closed” B) Open the door slightly to allow airflow C) Keep the door unlocked for quick emergency access D) Disable the door-arming system to avoid false alarms Answer: A Explanation: The door must be armed, latched, and display a “Closed” indication before departure. Question 41. A “Class A” fire is best extinguished with which type of agent? A) Water spray B) CO₂ extinguisher C) Dry chemical powder D) Halon replacement (e.g., FM-200) Answer: A Explanation: Class A fires involve ordinary combustibles and are effectively extinguished with water. Question 42. When a passenger exhibits signs of severe hypoxia, the crew should: A) Offer a glass of water B) Increase cabin temperature C) Immediately provide supplemental oxygen and descend if possible D) Ask the passenger to take deep breaths of cabin air Answer: C Explanation: Supplemental oxygen and a descent to a lower altitude are the correct responses to hypoxia. Question 43. The “sterile cockpit” rule applies to which phases of flight? A) All phases from gate-pushback to arrival at the gate B) Only during take-off and landing (below 10,000 ft)
C) From engine start to reaching 10,000 ft and from 100 ft above the runway to shutdown D) Only during cruise above 30,000 ft Answer: C Explanation: The sterile cockpit rule covers from engine start to 10,000 ft and from 100 ft above the runway to shutdown. Question 44. Which document must a crew member review before serving alcoholic beverages? A) Flight plan B) Passenger manifest C) Local liquor licensing regulations and airline policy D) Weather forecast Answer: C Explanation: Crew must adhere to both local regulations and airline policies regarding alcohol service. Question 45. A passenger reports a “smell of gas” in the lavatory. The crew’s immediate action should be to: A) Open all cabin windows B) Notify the flight deck and initiate a cabin search for the source C) Ignore it if the passenger seems calm D) Offer the passenger a freshener spray Answer: B Explanation: A gas smell could indicate a safety hazard; the flight deck must be informed and the source investigated. Question 46. Which of the following is a correct statement about the Emergency Slide/Rescue Raft (ESRR) on a wide-body aircraft? A) It can only be used on land, not water B) It inflates automatically upon impact with the ground or water C) It must be manually inflated by the crew before each flight
Explanation: Situational awareness involves perceiving, understanding, and projecting the status of the environment. Question 50. The correct way to secure a heavy service cart during turbulence is to: A) Lock the cart wheels and position it against a bulkhead B) Leave it in the aisle for quick access C) Push it to the forward galley and leave it unlocked D) Place a passenger on top of it for balance Answer: A Explanation: Locking the wheels and positioning the cart against a bulkhead prevents it from moving during turbulence. Question 51. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for denying a passenger’s request for an aisle seat? A) The passenger is a member of the airline’s frequent-flyer elite tier B) The seat is reserved for a passenger with reduced mobility C) The seat is required for an emergency exit row passenger D) The seat is needed for a passenger with a live animal in a carrier Answer: A Explanation: Elite status alone does not justify denying an aisle seat request; safety-related reasons do. Question 52. A crew member notices a passenger’s seatbelt is unfastened during turbulence. The correct response is to: A) Ignore it; the passenger will fasten it later B) Politely remind the passenger to fasten the seatbelt immediately C) Ask the passenger to move to a different seat D) Turn off the seat-belt sign to avoid confrontation Answer: B Explanation: Safety requires immediate reminders to fasten seatbelts during turbulence.
Question 53. Which of the following statements about “unaccompanied minor” (UMNR) documentation is correct? A) Only the child’s passport is required B) A signed UMNR form must be carried by the crew throughout the flight C) The minor may travel without a seat assignment D) The crew can leave the minor unattended in the lavatory Answer: B Explanation: The signed UMNR form accompanies the child and must be retained by crew for the duration of the flight. Question 54. In a “rapid decompression” scenario, the cabin altitude can increase to: A) 5,000 feet within seconds B) 12,000 feet within seconds C) 25,000 feet within minutes D) 30,000 feet after a prolonged climb Answer: B Explanation: Rapid decompression can cause an immediate cabin altitude rise to about 12,000 feet. Question 55. The primary purpose of the “Smoke Hood” in the cabin is to: A) Provide a comfortable environment for passengers during a fire B) Protect the crew member from smoke inhalation while locating the fire source C) Act as a decorative accessory for the cabin crew D) Reduce cabin temperature during a fire Answer: B Explanation: Smoke hoods allow crew to enter smoky areas while protecting their airway. Question 56. Which of the following is the correct protocol when a passenger becomes violent and refuses to comply with crew instructions?
B) Encouraging open communication and valuing contributions from all crew members C) Limiting discussions to the flight deck only D) Prioritizing passenger preferences over safety Answer: B Explanation: Mutual respect in CRM promotes open communication and values each crew member’s input. Question 60. The airline’s “uniform grooming manual” typically prohibits which of the following for cabin crew? A) Neutral-colored shoes B) Visible piercings on the face (except for a single stud earring) C) Short, clean-cut hair D) Light makeup Answer: B Explanation: Many airlines restrict visible facial piercings to maintain a professional appearance. Question 61. During a “water-landing” (ditching), the emergency slide also functions as: A) A fire-suppression device B) A life-raft with inflatable buoyancy chambers C) A passenger seating area for the remainder of the flight D) A storage compartment for baggage Answer: B Explanation: The slide/raft is equipped with inflatable buoyancy chambers to serve as a life-raft. Question 62. Which of the following is a proper method for handling a passenger whoQuestion 62.** A passenger reports a sudden “tightness in the chest” during flight. The crew’s first action should be to: A) Offer the passenger a glass of water
B) Administer a pain-relief tablet from the EMK C) Provide supplemental oxygen and notify the flight deck immediately D) Ask the passenger to lie down in the aisle seat Answer: C Explanation: Chest tightness may indicate a cardiac event; supplemental oxygen and immediate notification of the flight deck allow for emergency medical coordination. Question 63. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to store a portable oxygen bottle in the cabin? A) In the galley under the coffee machine B) Secured in the cabin safety equipment locker, fastened with a retention strap C) On a service cart for easy access by passengers D) In the overhead bin of any row Answer: B Explanation: Portable oxygen bottles must be stored in a designated safety locker and secured to prevent movement during turbulence. Question 64. The “drop-down” oxygen mask system is designed to provide a minimum flow rate of: A) 2 L/min per passenger B) 4 L/min per passenger C) 6 L/min per passenger D) 8 L/min per passenger Answer: B Explanation: The standard drop-down mask delivers at least 4 L/min of oxygen to each passenger, sufficient for normal breathing at reduced cabin pressure. Question 65. A passenger with a visible disability requests assistance with the seatbelt. The crew should: A) Ignore the request, as seatbelts are mandatory for everyone
