PATHO 370 MIDTERM ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS WITH 100% APPROVED CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ 2025 F, Exams of Nursing

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PATHO 370 MIDTERM ASSESSMENT

QUESTIONS WITH 100% APPROVED

CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A

2025 FIRST

CLASS PASS

2025 EXAM

A

PATHO 370 MIDTERM ASSESSMENT

QUESTIONS WITH 100% APPROVED

CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A

2025 FIRST

CLASS PASS

Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which: A. Stem cells are transferred to the patient from an identical twin. B. There is a high rejection rate. C. Stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient. D. Stem cells are transferred to the patient from an HLA-matched donor.

- correct answer C. Stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient. In autologous transplantation, the stem cells are collected from the patient's own blood and then stored and reinfused in the same patient after chemotherapy and radiation. The use of autologous transplants eliminates the problem of graft-versus-host disease. Transplant from a closely matched donor is known as allogeneic transplant. In autologous transplant, stem cells are used from the patient's own blood. Emesis causes: A. Metabolic alkalosis. B. Respiratory acidosis. C. Metabolic alkalosis. D. Respiratory alkalosis. - correct answer A. Metabolic alkalosis. Emesis causes metabolic alkalosis as the stomach is a major reservoir for acids. Emesis causes a metabolic acid-base imbalance as it is not related to the respiratory system. Emesis involves loss of gastric acid and fluid and causes an alkalotic disruption. Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome? A. Peripheral edema.

- correct answer B. The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately. The airway inflammation, edema, and bronchoconstriction of acute asthma may occlude small airways completely, so that no air is moving, which requires emergency intervention. Alicia has a history of asthma rather than pneumonia. Asthma can occur without wheezing. This is an emergency situation that requires you to start oxygen and notify the physician. The hypersecretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of: A. Destruction of alveolar septa. B. Reduced inflammation. C. Recurrent infection. d. Barrel chest. - correct answer C. Recurrent infection. Mucus provides a hospitable environment for bacterial colonization and recurrent infection. Destruction of alveolar septa and reduced inflammation are not complications of chronic bronchitis. Hypersecretion of mucus does not contribute to barrel chest. The major cause of death from leukemic disease is: A. Malnutrition. b. Kidney failure. C. Infection. D. Hypovolemic shock. - correct answer C. Infection. Infection is the most common cause of death in the immunocompromised patient, because it can become a life-threatening sepsis. Malnutrition can be a side effect of the disease process or the treatment. Hypovolemic shock is not generally associated with leukemic disease. There is no direct connection between kidney failure and death in leukemia, although kidney failure may occur as a result of treatment. When a parent asks how they will know if their 2-month-old baby, who is throwing up and has frequent diarrhea, is dehydrated, the nurse's best response is: A. "If the soft spot on the top of his head feels sunken in and his mouth is dry between his cheek and his gums, then he is probably dehydrated."

B. "If he doesn't wet his diaper all afternoon and his neck veins look flat when he is lying down, then he is probably dehydrated." C. "If he sleeps more than usual and acts tired when he is awake, then he is probably dehydrated." D. "Clinical dehydration is the combination of extracellular fluid volume deficit and hypernatremia, so those are the diagnostic criteria."

- correct answer A. If the soft spot on the top of his head feels sunken in and his mouth is dry between his cheek and gums, then he is probably dehydrated. Checking whether the head feels sunken and the mouth is dry between check and gums are useful assessments of ECV deficit in an infant, which is an important part of clinical dehydration. It is true that clinical dehydration is the combination of extracellular fluid volume deficit and hypernatremia, but it does not address the question Mr. Worry is asking. Although the diaper information provides a useful assessment, neck veins are not a reliable assessment in an infant. Drowsiness and fatigue are not reliable assessments for dehydration. Manifestations from sodium imbalances occur primarily as a result of: A. Hypovolemia. B. Vascular collapse. C. Hyperosmolarity. D. Cellular fluid shifts. - correct answer D. Cellular fluid shifts. Sodium imbalances alter osmolality of fluid compartment leading to osmosis of water from the hypo-osmolar compartment to the hyperosmolar compartment. In brain cells, this leads to swelling or shrinkage of cells, and associated manifestations. A middle-aged patient has a follow up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lbs. overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient's blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time? A. Encourage smoking cessation. B. Recheck blood pressure in 4 to 6 weeks. C. Begin lifestyle modifications. D. Begin antihypertensive drug therapy.

A. Variable PR interval. B. Absent P waves. C. Prolonged PR interval. D. Widened QRS complex.

- correct answer C. Prolonged PR interval. First-degree block is generally identified by a prolonged PR interval (more than 0. second) on ECG. P waves are not absent in first-degree heart block. A widened QRS complex is associated with a particular dysrhythmia, but not first-degree heart block. A variable PR interval is found in type I second-degree block. Cardiogenic shock is characterized by: A. Reduced CO. B. Hypovolemia. C. Elevated SvO2. D. Reduced systemic vascular resistance. - correct answer A. Reduced CO. Cardiogenic shock occurs primarily as a result of severe dysfunction of the left or right ventricles, or both, that results in inadequate cardiac pumping. The low cardiac output state is associated with a high left ventricular diastolic filling pressure. Cardiogenic shock is not manifested by hypovolemia. Sympathetic activation leads to increases in heart rate, vasoconstriction, and a narrow pulse pressure. Low cardiac output leads to reduced SvO2. An increase in the RMP (hyperpolarized) is associated with: A. Hypocalcemia. B. Hypercalcemia. C. Hypokalemia. D. Hyperkalemia. - correct answer C. Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the resting membrane potential. Hyperkalemia results in hypopolarization. Hypocalcemia and hypercalcemia do not affect the resting membrane potential.

The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with: A. Perfumes. B. Antibiotics. C. Animal proteins or dander. D. Incompatible blood products.

- correct answer B. Antibiotics. Anaphylactic shock is most frequently associated with antibiotic therapy. Contact with perfumes is not the most frequent cause of anaphylactic shock. Incompatible blood products do not lead to anaphylactic shock. Animal dander may lead to an anaphylactic reaction, but does so less commonly than antibiotics. A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is: A. Stroke. B. Hypertensive crisis. C. Extremity necrosis. D. Pulmonary embolus. - correct answer D. Pulmonary embolus. Deep vein thrombosis is treated aggressively, as it is the most frequent source of pulmonary embolus. Deep vein thrombosis is not the cause of a stroke. Hypertensive crisis is unrelated to deep vein thrombosis. Extremity necrosis could result from prolonged arterial occlusion. The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of: A. The vessel radius. B. Resistance. C. The vessel length. D. Viscosity. - correct answer B. Resistance. The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of resistance. Three determinants of resistance are vessel length, vessel radius, and blood viscosity.

- correct answer D. Dry cough. No exudative fluids are produced. Viral pneumonia does not produce exudates, so the cough is non-productive. Ventilation-perfusion imbalance does not usually occur in viral pneumonia. A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is: A. Tobacco. B. Caffeine. C. Acetaminophen. D. Aspirin. - correct answer D. Aspirin. Many drugs are associated with prolonged bleeding times. Aspirin is known to alter normal platelet function. Acetaminophen is not associated with prolongation of bleeding time. Tobacco does not interfere with bleeding times. Caffeine does not interfere with bleeding times. The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to secondary hypertension. T/F? - correct answer True. The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is: A. APC B. DCC C. P D. Rb - correct answer C. P The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells involves P53. More than half of all types of human tumors lack functional P53, which inhibits cell cycling. Rb, DC, and APC are not the most common tumor-suppressor gene defects identified in cancer cells. The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is: A. Tachycardia.

B. Frothy secretions. C. Hypotension. D. Hypoxemia.

- correct answer D. Hypoxemia. The hallmark of acute respiratory distress syndrome is hypoxemia caused by intrapulmonary shunting of blood. Tachycardia, hypotension, and frothy secretion occur in this disorder but are not hallmark. Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease? A. Radiation immunodeficiency. B. HIV/AIDS. C. Cancer immunodeficiency. D. Malnutrition immunodeficiency. - correct answer B. HIV/AIDS. HIV/AIDS is a primary immunodeficiency disease involving destruction of T helper cells. Malnutrition immunodeficiency is a secondary immunodeficiency disorder and leads to T- cell destruction and dysfunction. Cancer immunodeficiency is a secondary immunodeficiency disorder caused by the destruction of rapidly proliferating cells from chemotherapeutic agents. Radiation immunodeficiency is a secondary immunodeficiency disorder caused by the destruction of rapidly proliferating cells from the effects of radiation. Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is: A. Urban pollutants. B. Stressful lifestyle. C. Cigarette smoking. D. High-fat diet. - correct answer C. Cigarette smoking. The most likely contributing factor for the development of lung cancer is cigarette smoking. Tobacco smoke contains hundreds of compounds, many of which have known genotoxicity and probably serve as initiators. Tobacco smoke also contains promoters, which spur the mutant cells to proliferate. Although a high-fat diet, urban pollutants, and a

C. Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water. D. Administration of IV normal saline.

- correct answer C. Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water. Sodium is lost from gastric secretions when nasogastric tubes are irrigated with water. The sodium diffuses into the irrigating water and is then lost when the aspirate is withdrawn. Excessive ADH would lead to hyponatremia by retention of water in the body, thus diluting the sodium. Excess aldosterone would increase serum sodium. Normal saline is an isotonic solution and will not alter the serum sodium. Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome? A. ALL B. CLL C. AML D. CML - correct answer D. CML The majority of CML cases are characterized by malignant granulocytes that carry the Philadelphia chromosome. ALL is manifested by the malignant transformation of B cells and some T cells. CLL is associated with T-cell transformation. The Philadelphia chromosome is not seen in CLL. AML is associated with a transformation of a myeloid stem cell. What age group has a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid? A. Older adults. B. Infants. C. Adolescents. D. Young adults. - correct answer B. Infants. Infants have a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid. Adolescents, young adults, and older adults have a larger volume of intracellular fluid than extracellular fluid. Coagulative necrosis is caused by: A. Interrupted blood supply.

B. Lung tissue or damage. C. Trauma or pancreatitis. D. Dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation.

- correct answer A. Interrupted blood supply. Coagulative necrosis results from interrupted blood supply leading to ischemic cell injury. Liquefactive necrosis results from dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation. Fat necrosis is caused by trauma or pancreatitis. Caseous necrosis is caused by lung tissue damage such as that caused by tuberculosis. Hypernatremia may be caused by: A. Decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion. B. Compulsive water drinking. C. Excessive dietary potassium. D. Decreased aldosterone secretion. - correct answer A. Decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion. Decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion (diabetes insipidus) prevents water reabsorption in the kidneys, which creates large volumes of dilute urine and causes hypernatremia. Aldosterone causes sodium and water retention. Compulsive water drinking that overwhelms the kidneys would dilute the blood, causing hyponatremia. Excessive dietary potassium would not affect the serum sodium concentration. The arterial blood gas pH = 7.52, PaCO 2 = 30 mm Hg, HCO 3 - = 24 mEq/L demonstrates: A. Metabolic acidosis. B. Respiratory alkalosis. C. Mixed alkalosis. D. Respiratory acidosis. - correct answer B. Respiratory alkalosis. The high pH, low PaCO 2, and normal HCO 3 indicate respiratory alkalosis. Metabolic and respiratory acidosis would decrease the pH. The HCO 3 - is normal, so no metabolic imbalance is indicated.

D. Vasopressin.

- correct answer B. Nitric oxide. In septic shock, tumor necrosis factor-α, interleukin-1, and other inflammatory mediators induce vascular cells to produce excessive amounts of the vasodilator nitric oxide. Catecholamines are not produced by TNF-α and IL-1. The production of clotting factors is not induced by tumor necrosis factor-α and interleukin-1. Vasopressin production is not induced by TNF-α and IL-1. Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection? A. Productive cough B. Low-grade fever C. Cyanosis D. Night sweats - correct answer D. Cyanosis. Cyanosis is not a typical manifestation of tuberculosis infection. A productive cough, low- grade fever, and night sweats are the typical manifestations of tuberculosis infection. Renal compensation for respiratory acidosis is evidenced by: A. Elevated CO2. B. Decreased CO2. C. Elevated HCO3- concentration. D. Decreased HCO3- concentration.

• correct answer C. Elevated HCO3- concentration. Elevated bicarbonate ion concentration is evidence of compensation for a respiratory acidosis. The lungs manage the carbon dioxide concentration. Elevated carbon dioxide is evidence of respiratory acidosis, not of compensation for it. Decreased bicarbonate ion concentration would make acidosis worse. Lusitropic impairment refers to: A. Poor contractile force. B. Impaired diastolic relaxation. C. Altered action potential conduction rate.

D. Altered automaticity.

- correct answer B. Impaired diastolic relaxation. Lusitropic impairment refers to an energy-requiring process that removes free calcium ions from the cytoplasm by pumping them back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and across the cell membrane into the extracellular fluid. Ischemia interferes with this process in the active phase of diastolic relaxation. Poor contractile force is not associated with lusitropic impairment. The conduction rate is not associated with the energy-requiring process known as lusitropy. Automaticity is not a factor in lusitropy. Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular: A. Mutation. B. Atrophy. C. Proliferation. D. Death. - correct answer D. Death. Apoptosis results in death of a cell when it is no longer needed. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of an organ because of cellular shrinkage. Proliferation refers to growth of new cells. Mutation refers to alteration in the genetic structure of cellular DNA. Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of: A. Loss of alveolar elastin. B. Pulmonary edema. C. Hyperplasia and deformation of bronchial cartilage. D. Thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy. - correct answer D. Thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy. Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is as a result of thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy. Loss of alveolar elastin, pulmonary edema, and hyperplasia and deformation of bronchial cartilage are not part of the pathophysiology of chronic bronchitis. A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction. This patient is most likely characterized by a(n): A. Elderly woman without a previous history of MI.

are also common early findings. Vertebral fractures, elevated calcium levels, and bone pain are more frequently associated with plasma cell myeloma. Asymptomatic onset is generally found with CLL and is often found by accident on a routine blood count. Enlarged cervical lymph nodes are seen more commonly in Hodgkin disease. A patient, who is 8 months pregnant, has developed eclampsia and is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures. To determine if her infusion rate is too high, you should regularly: A. Check the patellar reflex; if it stays the same, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. B. Check the patellar reflex; if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. C. Check the patellar reflex; if it becomes more and more hyperactive, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. D. Check for seizure activity; if no seizures occur, her infusion rate is correct.

- correct answer B. Check the patellar reflex; if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. Hypermagnesemia causes decreased neuromuscular excitability and testing the patellar reflex can detect that. Hypermagnesemia causes decreased, not increased, neuromuscular excitability. If the patellar reflex stays the same, the infusion rate is therapeutic. Watching for seizure activity is a dangerous course of action. Hypermagnesemia can cause respiratory depression and cardiac arrest, so you need to assess for its development. RhoGAM (an Rh antibody) would be appropriate in an Rh-_____ woman with an _____ Rh- _____ antibody titer carrying an Rh-_____ fetus. A. Negative; negative; negative B. Negative; negative; positive C. Positive; negative; negative D. Negative; positive; positive - correct answer B. Negative; negative; positive. If a woman is Rh-negative, RhoGAM is administered for prevention of Rh-positive antibodies. Erythroblastosis fetalis develops during pregnancy when an Rh-negative mother is sensitized to her fetus's Rh-positive red cell group antigens because of exposure during her current or a previous pregnancy. RhoGAM contains antibodies against Rh antigens on fetal blood cells and is given to the mother to destroy fetal cells that may be present in her circulation before her immune system becomes activated and begins to produce anti-Rh antibodies. RhoGAM is not effective if the mother already has a positive

antibody titer for fetal Rh antigens. An Rh-positive woman with negative Rh antibody titer carrying Rh-negative fetus does not require RhoGAM because the mother is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative. Most CO2 is transported in the bloodstream as: A. Carboxyhemoglobin. B. Dissolved CO2. C. Bicarbonate ion. D. Carbonic acid.

- correct answer C. Bicarbonate ion. Approximately 90% of the CO 2 in the arterial blood and 60% of the CO 2 in the venous blood are transported as bicarbonate. Carbon dioxide is not transported as carboxyhemoglobin. Some of the remaining carbon dioxide binds with protein to form carbaminohemoglobin for CO 2 transport, but dissolved carbon dioxide is not the primary means of bloodstream transportation. Carbonic acid is disassociated into hydrogen and bicarbonate ions for elimination by the lungs and kidneys. A patient with cold and edematous extremities, low cardiac output, and profound hypotension is likely to be experiencing a progressive stage of ________ shock. A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Septic D. Obstructive - correct answer C. Septic. In the progressive stage of septic shock, some patients deteriorate to a hypodynamic state. This is characterized by decreased cardiac output and cold, clammy skin as a result of narrowed pulse pressure. Profound hypotension generally occurs which is unresponsive to treatment. Cardiogenic shock is evidenced by decreased cardiac output, elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, S 3 heart sounds, and pulmonary edema. Hypotension occurs with hypovolemic shock, but extremities are not likely to be cold and edematous. Cold edematous extremities along with low cardiac output and profound hypotension are not manifestations of obstructive shock. A restrictive respiratory disorder is characterized by: A. Increased TLC.