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Question 1. Which Agile ceremony is primarily responsible for synchronizing work across multiple Scrum teams in a scaled environment? A) Daily Stand‑up B) Sprint Review C) Scrum of Scrums D) Sprint Retrospective Answer: C Explanation: The Scrum of Scrums is a coordination meeting where representatives from each Scrum team discuss progress, impediments, and integration issues, enabling alignment across teams. Question 2. In a DevOps pipeline, which tool category best automates the provisioning of infrastructure in a cloud environment? A) Continuous Integration (CI) servers B) Configuration Management tools C) Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tools D) Static Code Analysis tools Answer: C Explanation: IaC tools like Terraform or CloudFormation define and provision cloud resources programmatically, ensuring repeatable and version‑controlled infrastructure deployments. Question 3. When performing quantitative risk analysis, which metric represents the expected monetary loss from a specific threat?
A) Likelihood B) Impact C) Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) D) Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) Answer: D Explanation: SLE quantifies the monetary loss from a single occurrence of a threat, forming part of the calculation for Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE). Question 4. Which testing technique is most suitable for evaluating how a system behaves under sudden, unpredictable failures? A) Load testing B) Chaos engineering C) Regression testing D) Unit testing Answer: B Explanation: Chaos engineering deliberately introduces failures (e.g., killing containers) to verify system resilience and recovery mechanisms. Question 5. In microservices architecture, which pattern helps maintain data consistency across services without using distributed transactions? A) Two‑Phase Commit B) Saga pattern C) Shared Database
Question 8. Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for end‑to‑end reliability and flow control? A) Link Layer B. Internet Layer C. Transport Layer D. Application Layer Answer: C Explanation: The Transport layer (TCP) provides reliability, sequencing, and flow control, ensuring data arrives correctly between hosts. Question 9. In Software‑Defined Networking (SDN), the component that centrally programs forwarding behavior on switches is called the: A) Data Plane B) Control Plane C) Management Plane D) Overlay Network Answer: B Explanation: The SDN control plane (e.g., OpenFlow controller) dictates how the data plane (switches) forwards packets. Question 10. Which AWS feature enables you to create an isolated virtual network with custom IP ranges, subnets, and routing tables?
A) Security Group B) VPC C) IAM Role D) CloudFront Answer: B Explanation: A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) provides a logically isolated network environment within AWS. Question 11. Which container orchestration concept ensures that a defined number of pod replicas are always running? A) DaemonSet B) StatefulSet C) Deployment D) Job Answer: C Explanation: A Deployment manages replica sets, automatically maintaining the desired number of pod replicas. Question 12. In Linux, which command is used to view real‑time CPU usage per process? A) df - h B) top C) netstat - tulnp
Explanation: Document stores (e.g., MongoDB) are optimized for JSON‑like hierarchical data structures. Question 15. In a data lake architecture, which component is primarily responsible for ingesting raw data from multiple sources? A) Data Warehouse B) ETL/ELT pipeline C) Metadata Catalog D) Data Visualization tool Answer: B Explanation: ETL/ELT pipelines extract data from sources, transform (or not), and load it into the data lake for storage. Question 16. Which encryption method is most suitable for protecting data at rest in a distributed storage system? A) TLS B) AES‑256 in XTS mode C) RSA‑OAEP D) SHA‑256 hashing Answer: B Explanation: AES‑256 XTS provides sector‑level encryption for data at rest, commonly used in storage arrays and distributed file systems.
Question 17. Threat modeling using the STRIDE framework does NOT include which of the following categories? A) Spoofing B) Tampering C) Repudiation D) Discovery Answer: D Explanation: STRIDE stands for Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege. “Discovery” is not a STRIDE element. Question 18. Role‑Based Access Control (RBAC) differs from Attribute‑Based Access Control (ABAC) primarily in: A) RBAC uses user attributes, ABAC uses static roles B) RBAC assigns permissions to roles, ABAC evaluates policies based on attributes C) RBAC is dynamic, ABAC is static D) RBAC cannot be used in cloud environments Answer: B Explanation: RBAC maps permissions to roles; ABAC evaluates access decisions using attributes (user, resource, environment) in policies. Question 19. Which SIEM capability enables automatic response actions when a defined security rule is triggered?
D) Preferred video codec vendor Answer: B Explanation: Knowing the bandwidth per session allows calculation of total network capacity needed for the expected number of concurrent sessions. Question 22. Which Poly product family is designed for large conference rooms and supports 4K video with integrated acoustic echo cancellation? A) SoundStation Duo B) Trio 8500 C) RealPresence Group Series D) VVX 601 Answer: C Explanation: The RealPresence Group Series targets large rooms, offering 4K video, built‑in AEC, and advanced collaboration features. Question 23. When integrating Poly devices with Microsoft Teams, which protocol is primarily used for signaling? A) H. B) SIP over TLS C) MGCP D) RTP Answer: B
Explanation: Teams uses SIP over TLS for signaling with Poly devices, enabling secure call setup and control. Question 24. In a mixed IPv4/IPv6 UC environment, which transition mechanism allows IPv6‑only devices to communicate with IPv4‑only services without NAT? A) Dual‑Stack B) 6to4 Tunnel C) NAT64/DNS D) 6rd Answer: C Explanation: NAT64/DNS64 translates IPv6 packets to IPv4, allowing IPv6‑only clients to reach IPv4 services transparently. Question 25. Which DSCP value is commonly assigned to real‑time video traffic to ensure high priority forwarding? A) CS0 (Default) B) AF C) EF (Expedited Forwarding) D) CS Answer: C Explanation: EF (DSCP 46) is reserved for low‑latency, high‑priority traffic such as VoIP and video, ensuring minimal queuing delay.
Question 28. Zero‑Touch Provisioning (ZTP) of Poly devices typically relies on which component to push configuration automatically after the device first connects to the network? A) DHCP Option 66 B) DNS SRV record C) HTTP/HTTPS provisioning server (Poly Lens) D) SNMP trap Answer: C Explanation: Poly Lens (or similar management platform) hosts a provisioning server that devices contact on first boot to retrieve configuration profiles. Question 29. In Wireshark, which filter expression isolates SIP INVITE messages? A) sip.method == "INVITE" B) udp.port == 5060 && sip C) frame.protocols == "sip" && sip.invite D) sip && sip.invite == 1 Answer: A Explanation: The display filter sip.method == "INVITE" directly matches SIP INVITE requests. Question 30. Which metric best indicates jitter in a video conferencing session?
A) Packet loss percentage B) Round‑trip time (RTT) variance C) Average bandwidth utilization D) CPU usage on the endpoint Answer: B Explanation: Jitter reflects variability in packet arrival times, commonly measured as the variance of RTT or inter‑arrival delay. Question 31. When planning a hybrid UC deployment, the primary advantage of keeping the media processing on‑premises is: A) Lower licensing costs B) Reduced latency for local users C) Simplified compliance reporting D) Easier integration with SaaS platforms Answer: B Explanation: On‑premises media processing eliminates the round‑trip to the cloud, reducing latency for users within the same LAN. Question 32. Which Poly device model supports native integration with Zoom Rooms via the Zoom Room Connector? A) VVX 601 B) RealPresence Group 700 C) Trio 8500
Explanation: fs.file-max defines the total number of file handles that can be allocated across all processes. Question 35. In a CI/CD workflow, which stage is best suited for performing static application security testing (SAST)? A) Build B) Test C) Deploy D) Release Answer: A Explanation: SAST analyzes source code for vulnerabilities early, typically during the build stage before artifacts are produced. Question 36. Which data consistency model guarantees that a read operation returns the most recent write for a given key? A) Eventual consistency B) Strong (linearizable) consistency C) Causal consistency D) Session consistency Answer: B Explanation: Strong consistency (linearizability) ensures that every read sees the latest committed write.
Question 37. Which AWS service provides a managed, horizontally scalable NoSQL database with millisecond latency? A) Amazon RDS B) Amazon DynamoDB C) Amazon Redshift D) Amazon Aurora Answer: B Explanation: DynamoDB is a fully managed NoSQL key‑value and document database designed for low‑latency, high‑throughput workloads. Question 38. In a Poly video endpoint, which codec is preferred for low‑bandwidth (≤ 500 kbps) scenarios while maintaining acceptable video quality? A) H.264 (Baseline) B) H.265 (HEVC) C) VP D) AV Answer: B Explanation: H.265 (HEVC) achieves similar visual quality to H.264 at roughly half the bitrate, making it ideal for constrained bandwidth. Question 39. Which OpenTelemetry component is responsible for collecting trace data from an application? A) Collector
Answer: D Explanation: The DAG Scheduler transforms logical execution plans into physical stages and tasks, then works with the cluster manager to launch them. Question 42. Which Linux command can be used to generate a core dump for a running process without terminating it? A) gcore B) strace - c C) kill - SIGSTOP D) lsof Answer: A Explanation: gcore <pid> creates a core dump of the specified process while leaving it running. Question 43. In a poly‑centric video conference, which feature enables a participant to view multiple remote video streams simultaneously in a tiled layout? A) Picture‑in‑Picture (PiP) B) Gallery View C) Content Sharing D) Dual‑Screen Mode Answer: B
Explanation: Gallery View arranges each participant’s video feed in a grid, allowing simultaneous viewing of many streams. Question 44. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using a Service Mesh (e.g., Istio) in a microservices environment? A) Automatic code generation for services B) Centralized traffic management, security, and observability without modifying application code C) Replacement for container orchestration platforms D) Simplified virtual machine provisioning Answer: B Explanation: A Service Mesh injects sidecars to handle inter‑service traffic, providing features like mTLS, routing, and telemetry without application changes. Question 45. When performing a risk assessment for GDPR compliance, which principle focuses on limiting data collection to what is necessary? A) Data Minimization B) Right to Erasure C) Data Portability D) Accountability Answer: A Explanation: Data minimization requires organizations to collect only the personal data required for a specific purpose.
