Download PrepIQ POLY SPECIALIST LEVEL PROGRAM Ultimate Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Exam
Question 1. Which Scrum artifact is primarily used to convey the product’s upcoming work to the development team? A) Sprint Review B) Product Backlog C) Definition of Done D) Scrum Board Answer: B Explanation: The Product Backlog contains all desired work items for the product, prioritized for future sprints. Question 2. In a Kanban system, which metric best indicates the average time a work item spends in the system? A) Cycle time B) Lead time C) Throughput D) Work in progress (WIP) limit Answer: A Explanation: Cycle time measures the duration from when work starts to when it finishes, reflecting process efficiency. Question 3. Which risk-mitigation technique involves transferring the financial impact of a security breach to a third party? A) Avoidance B) Acceptance C) Transference D) Mitigation Answer: C Explanation: Transference shifts risk to another entity, often via insurance or outsourcing. Question 4. In chaos engineering, what is the primary purpose of injecting latency into a service’s network path?
Exam
A) To test load-balancing algorithms B) To verify data encryption strength C) To assess system resilience under degraded conditions D) To measure CPU utilization Answer: C Explanation: Introducing latency simulates network degradation, allowing teams to observe how the system tolerates and recovers. Question 5. Which testing strategy focuses on evaluating a system’s behavior when subjected to a sudden surge of traffic? A) Penetration testing B) Load testing C) Unit testing D) Regression testing Answer: B Explanation: Load testing measures performance under expected high-volume traffic to identify bottlenecks. Question 6. In microservices architecture, what pattern helps maintain data consistency across services without using distributed transactions? A) Saga pattern B) Circuit breaker C) API gateway D) Service mesh Answer: A Explanation: The Saga pattern breaks a business transaction into a series of local transactions, each with compensating actions. Question 7. Which cloud-native design pattern enables functions to be triggered automatically by events such as object uploads? A) Serverless
Exam
D) Enforcing monolithic code structure Answer: B Explanation: An API gateway provides a single entry point, handling authentication, routing, and protocol translation. Question 11. Which OSI layer is responsible for end-to-end reliability and flow control? A) Physical B) Data Link C) Transport D) Network Answer: C Explanation: The Transport layer (TCP) ensures reliable delivery, sequencing, and flow control. Question 12. In IPv6, which address type is used for devices that need to be reachable from the internet without NAT? A) Link-local address B) Unique local address (ULA) C) Global unicast address D) Multicast address Answer: C Explanation: Global unicast addresses are routable on the public internet, replacing IPv4 public addresses. Question 13. Which routing protocol is classified as a link-state protocol? A) RIP B) OSPF C) BGP D) EIGRP
Exam
Answer: B Explanation: OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) uses a link-state database to compute shortest paths. Question 14. In Software-Defined Networking (SDN), the component that makes forwarding decisions based on a centralized view is called the: A) Data plane B) Control plane C) Management plane D) Forwarding engine Answer: B Explanation: The SDN control plane (e.g., an OpenFlow controller) centrally programs the data plane. Question 15. Which AWS VPC feature provides a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic at the subnet level? A) Security Group B) Network ACL C) Route Table D) NAT Gateway Answer: B Explanation: Network ACLs operate at the subnet level, allowing stateless traffic filtering. Question 16. Which container orchestration feature ensures that a specified number of pod replicas are always running? A) DaemonSet B) StatefulSet C) Deployment replica set D) Job Answer: C
Exam
Question 20. In Linux performance tuning, which tool provides a real-time view of CPU, memory, and I/O usage? A) top B) grep C) cat D) chmod Answer: A Explanation: top displays dynamic system resource usage. Question 21. Which hypervisor type runs directly on the hardware without a host OS? A) Type 1 (bare-metal) B) Type 2 (hosted) C) Nested hypervisor D) Paravirtualized Answer: A Explanation: Type 1 hypervisors (e.g., VMware ESXi) install directly on the physical server. Question 22. A NoSQL document database is best suited for which scenario? A) Complex multi-table joins B) Storing hierarchical JSON data with variable schema C) High-frequency financial transaction processing requiring ACID guarantees D) Fixed-length, column-oriented analytics Answer: B Explanation: Document stores (e.g., MongoDB) handle flexible, hierarchical JSON-like structures efficiently.
Exam
Question 23. Which consistency model guarantees that a read operation always returns the most recent write? A) Eventual consistency B) Causal consistency C) Strong (linearizable) consistency D) Session consistency Answer: C Explanation: Strong consistency ensures reads reflect the latest committed write. Question 24. In Apache Spark, which abstraction represents a distributed immutable collection of objects? A) DataFrame B) RDD (Resilient Distributed Dataset) C) Dataset D) Stream Answer: B Explanation: RDDs are the core immutable, fault-tolerant data structures in Spark. Question 25. Which component of a data lake is responsible for ingesting raw data from multiple sources? A) Data warehouse B) ETL/ELT pipeline C) Metadata catalog D) Visualization layer Answer: B Explanation: ETL/ELT pipelines extract, transform (or load-then-transform) and move raw data into the lake. Question 26. Which encryption method is typically used to protect data at rest in cloud object storage?
Exam
B) Single Sign-On (SSO) C) Role-based access control (RBAC) D) Privileged Access Management (PAM) Answer: A Explanation: Federation enables identity providers to issue assertions, allowing role assumption across domains. Question 30. In a SIEM, which process correlates multiple log events to detect a security incident? A) Log collection B) Event normalization C) Alert tuning D) Correlation rule execution Answer: D Explanation: Correlation rules analyze patterns across logs to generate alerts for suspicious activity. Question 31. When calculating RPO, what does a value of “4 hours” signify? A) The maximum tolerable downtime B) The time needed to restore a system after a failure C) The maximum acceptable data loss window D) The interval between full backups Answer: C Explanation: RPO (Recovery Point Objective) defines how much data loss (time) is acceptable. Question 32. Which backup strategy ensures that each backup copy cannot be altered after creation? A) Incremental backup B) Differential backup
Exam
C) Immutable (WORM) backup D) Snapshot backup Answer: C Explanation: Write-once-read-many (WORM) storage makes backups immutable, preventing tampering. Question 33. Which regulation specifically mandates protection of PHI (Protected Health Information) in the United States? A) GDPR B) PCI-DSS C) HIPAA D) SOX Answer: C Explanation: HIPAA sets standards for safeguarding health-related personal data. Question 34. In a unified communications (UC) deployment, which phase involves mapping user personas to required device capabilities? A) Capacity planning B) Needs assessment C) Solution design D) Pilot testing Answer: B Explanation: Needs assessment gathers user profiles to determine appropriate UC features and devices. Question 35. When planning bandwidth for a 1080p video conference at 30 fps using H.264, which approximate bitrate is typically allocated per stream? A) 0.5 Mbps B) 1.5 Mbps C) 3 Mbps
Exam
Answer: A Explanation: SBCs provide protocol interworking, media transcoding, and security between environments. Question 39. Which QoS DSCP value is commonly used for voice traffic to ensure low latency? A) AF41 (101010) B) EF (101110) C) CS4 (100100) D) BE (000000) Answer: B Explanation: EF (Expedited Forwarding) is reserved for latency-sensitive voice packets. Question 40. To traverse a NAT device for outbound video calls, which technique is most widely employed? A) STUN B) DNSSEC C) ARP spoofing D) VLAN tagging Answer: A Explanation: STUN discovers the public IP/port mapping, enabling NAT traversal. Question 41. Which encryption protocol secures RTP media streams in a Polycom deployment? A) DTLS B) SRTP C) IPsec D) TLS Answer: B
Exam
Explanation: Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) encrypts audio/video payloads. Question 42. In Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax), which feature improves performance for high-density environments? A) OFDM B) MU-MIMO (multi-user MIMO) C) WEP encryption D) Legacy rate fallback Answer: B Explanation: MU-MIMO allows simultaneous transmission to multiple clients, boosting throughput in crowded spaces. Question 43. Zero-Touch Provisioning (ZTP) for Poly devices primarily relies on which protocol to retrieve configuration files? A) FTP B) HTTP/HTTPS C) SNMP D) TFTP Answer: B Explanation: ZTP agents contact a provisioning server over HTTPS to download JSON/YAML configuration templates. Question 44. Which Poly management platform provides centralized firmware updates for thousands of devices? A) Poly Lens B) Poly Studio C) Polycom Manager D) Poly Control Hub Answer: A Explanation: Poly Lens is the cloud-based dashboard for mass device monitoring and updates.
Exam
Question 48. Which ITIL process is most closely aligned with creating documentation for UC device maintenance? A) Incident Management B) Change Management C) Service Asset and Configuration Management (SACM) D) Problem Management Answer: C Explanation: SACM manages configuration items and associated documentation throughout their lifecycle. Question 49. When planning a disaster-recovery site for a Poly cloud service, which metric determines the maximum acceptable time to bring services online? A) RPO B) RTO C) MTTR D) SLA Answer: B Explanation: Recovery Time Objective (RTO) defines the target time to restore operations after a disruption. Question 50. Which training method is most effective for ensuring rapid adoption of a new video-conferencing system among executive users? A) Self-paced e-learning modules B) One-on-one hands-on workshops C) Mass email with user guides D) Quarterly webinars Answer: B Explanation: Executives benefit from personalized, hands-on sessions that directly address their workflow and concerns.
Exam
Question 51. In Agile, what is the purpose of a “spike” story? A) To deliver a fully functional feature. B) To explore a technical approach or gather information. C) To fix a critical bug. D) To perform regression testing. Answer: B Explanation: A spike is a time-boxed investigation to reduce uncertainty before committing to implementation. Question 52. Which Lean principle focuses on eliminating activities that do not add value to the customer? A. Continuous improvement B. Respect for people C. Value stream mapping D. Waste reduction Answer: D Explanation: Lean’s waste reduction (Muda) targets non-value-adding steps. Question 53. When performing a risk quantification, which metric expresses the probability of a threat exploiting a vulnerability? A. Impact rating B. Likelihood score C. Exposure factor D. Vulnerability index Answer: B Explanation: Likelihood quantifies how often a threat may successfully exploit a weakness. Question 54. Which type of automated test is best suited for verifying that a new code change does not break existing functionality?
Exam
B. FIN, ACK
C. RST, ACK
D. PSH, ACK
Answer: B Explanation: A FIN flag signals a graceful shutdown; the ACK acknowledges it. Question 58. Which SDN controller protocol enables a northbound API for application developers? A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF C. RESTCONF D. BGP Answer: C Explanation: RESTCONF provides a RESTful northbound interface for managing the network via the controller. Question 59. What is the primary advantage of using a Network ACL over a Security Group in AWS? A. Statefulness B. Instance-level granularity C. Subnet-level, stateless filtering D. Automatic patching Answer: C Explanation: NACLs operate at the subnet level and are stateless, allowing inbound and outbound rules separately. Question 60. Which Docker command builds an image from a Dockerfile located in the current directory and tags it as “myapp:latest”? A. docker run myapp:latest B. docker build -t myapp:latest.
Exam
C. docker compose up myapp D. docker create myapp:latest Answer: B Explanation: docker build -t myapp:latest . builds and tags the image. Question 61. In Kubernetes, which resource is used to ensure that a pod’s containers are restarted on failure according to a defined policy? A. Liveness probe B. Init container C. RestartPolicy D. ConfigMap Answer: C Explanation: RestartPolicy (Always, OnFailure, Never) determines pod restart behavior. Question 62. Which Linux command displays all active network sockets and the processes that own them? A. netstat -tulpn B. ls -l /proc/net C. ip addr show D. ping -c 4 Answer: A Explanation: netstat -tulpn lists TCP/UDP listening sockets with PID/Program name. Question 63. Which virtualization technology uses a hypervisor that runs directly on hardware and provides near-bare-metal performance? A. VMware Workstation B. Oracle VirtualBox C. Microsoft Hyper-V (Type 1) D. Parallels Desktop
