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Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
Question 1. Which phase of the Waterfall model is typically performed immediately after the requirements analysis phase? A) Design B) Implementation C) Testing D) Deployment Answer: A Explanation: In the Waterfall model, after gathering and analyzing requirements, the next sequential step is the design phase where system architecture and detailed specifications are created. Question 2. In the V-Model, which testing activity directly validates the design specifications? A) Unit testing B) Integration testing C) System testing D) Acceptance testing Answer: C Explanation: System testing corresponds to the design phase in the V-Model, ensuring that the complete system meets the design specifications. Question 3. Which of the following is a primary risk addressed by the Spiral model’s “Risk Analysis” quadrant? A) User interface design B) Technical feasibility C) Code style consistency D) Documentation completeness Answer: B
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: The Spiral model’s risk analysis quadrant focuses on evaluating technical and project risks, such as feasibility, before proceeding to the next development cycle. Question 4. Incremental development differs from iterative development primarily in that: A) Incremental delivers a fully functional system at each step, while iterative refines the same system. B) Incremental adds new functionality in each release; iterative repeats the same functionality with improvements. C) Incremental uses only Waterfall phases, while iterative uses Agile ceremonies. D) Incremental requires no testing, while iterative requires extensive testing. Answer: B Explanation: Incremental adds distinct functional increments, whereas iterative revisits and refines the same set of features across cycles. Question 5. Which Agile Manifesto value emphasizes “working software over comprehensive documentation”? A) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools B) Responding to change over following a plan C) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation D) Working software over comprehensive documentation Answer: D Explanation: The fourth value of the Agile Manifesto states that delivering functional software is more important than extensive documentation. Question 6. In Scrum, who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product resulting from the work of the Development Team? A) Scrum Master B) Product Owner
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
B) Lead time and flow efficiency C) Documentation completeness D) Sprint velocity Answer: B Explanation: By restricting WIP, Kanban reduces bottlenecks, thereby shortening lead time and improving overall workflow efficiency. Question 10. A functional requirement describes: A) System performance under load B) Security compliance standards C) What the system shall do D) The reliability targets for the system Answer: C Explanation: Functional requirements specify the behaviors or functions the system must perform. Question 11. Which non-functional requirement category deals with the system’s ability to protect data from unauthorized access? A) Performance B) Usability C) Security D) Maintainability Answer: C Explanation: Security NFRs define confidentiality, integrity, and access control measures. Question 12. Which elicitation technique is most suitable for discovering tacit knowledge from end users? A) Questionnaires
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
B) Interviews C) Ethnographic observation D) Prototyping Answer: C Explanation: Ethnography involves observing users in their natural environment, revealing tacit workflows and needs. Question 13. The “I” in the INVEST criteria for user stories stands for: A) Independent B) Integrated C) Internal D) Inferred Answer: A Explanation: “Independent” means a user story should be self-contained and not depend on other stories for implementation. Question 14. Verification activities primarily focus on: A) Building the right product B) Ensuring the product meets user expectations C) Checking that the product is built correctly according to specifications D) Managing scope changes Answer: C Explanation: Verification confirms that the software conforms to its design and specifications. Question 15. Traceability matrices are used to map requirements to which of the following artefacts? A) Project charter only
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
B) Liskov Substitution Principle C) Single Responsibility Principle D) Interface Segregation Principle Answer: C Explanation: The Single Responsibility Principle (SRP) mandates that a class should have one responsibility, thus one reason to change. Question 19. The Open/Closed Principle requires that software entities be: A) Open for modification, closed for extension B) Open for extension, closed for modification C) Open for both modification and extension D) Closed for both modification and extension Answer: B Explanation: Entities should be extendable without altering existing code, ensuring stability. Question 20. In the Liskov Substitution Principle, a derived class must be substitutable for its base class without: A) Changing the method signatures B) Breaking client code expectations C) Adding new private fields D) Implementing additional interfaces Answer: B Explanation: Substituting a subclass should not alter the correctness of programs that use the base class. Question 21. Interface Segregation Principle advocates for: A) One large interface for all clients
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
B) Multiple client-specific interfaces to avoid unnecessary method exposure C. Using abstract classes instead of interfaces D. Merging interfaces to reduce code size Answer: B Explanation: ISP recommends small, client-specific interfaces so implementing classes are not forced to depend on unused methods. Question 22. Dependency Inversion Principle suggests that high-level modules should depend on: A. Concrete classes B. Low-level modules C. Abstractions (interfaces) D. Static utility functions Answer: C Explanation: Both high- and low-level modules should depend on abstractions, reducing coupling. Question 23. Which architectural style typically separates presentation, business logic, and data storage into distinct layers? A. Monolithic architecture B. Client-Server architecture C. Multi-tier architecture D. Peer-to-peer architecture Answer: C Explanation: Multi-tier (or n-tier) architecture divides the system into separate layers such as presentation, logic, and data. Question 24. A key advantage of microservices over a monolithic architecture is:
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
A. Bottom-up B. Top-down C. Big Bang D. Sandwich Answer: B Explanation: Top-down integration begins with high-level modules and progressively integrates lower-level components. Question 28. Big Bang integration testing is most risky because: A. It requires extensive test harnesses B. All components are integrated at once, making defect isolation difficult C. It only tests UI layers D. It does not require any test planning Answer: B Explanation: Integrating all modules simultaneously makes it hard to pinpoint the source of failures. Question 29. Alpha testing is typically performed by: A. End users in a production environment B. Developers in a controlled lab setting C. Independent QA teams in a simulated environment D. External beta testers after release Answer: B Explanation: Alpha testing is an internal test conducted by developers or QA before the product reaches external users. Question 30. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) validates which of the following? A. Code style guidelines
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
B. System performance under stress C. That the system meets business requirements and is ready for production D. Integration of third-party APIs Answer: C Explanation: UAT confirms that the delivered system fulfills the agreed-upon business needs from the user’s perspective. Question 31. Regression testing is essential after: A. Adding a new feature or fixing a defect B. Completing the initial design phase C. Conducting a requirements workshop D. Deploying a new development environment Answer: A Explanation: Regression tests verify that recent changes have not unintentionally broken existing functionality. Question 32. Which CMMI level indicates that an organization has defined processes that are documented and standardized across projects? A. Level 1 – Initial B. Level 2 – Managed C. Level 3 – Defined D. Level 4 – Quantitatively Managed Answer: C Explanation: CMMI Level 3 (Defined) means processes are documented, standardized, and integrated into organizational standards. Question 33. **ISO/IEC 25010 defines which of the following quality characteristics? ** A. Maintainability, Security, Portability, Reliability, etc.
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
Question 36. Function Point Analysis (FPA) primarily measures: A. Lines of code written B. The functional size of the software from the user’s perspective C. Number of test cases executed D. Development team productivity in story points Answer: B Explanation: FPA quantifies the functional requirements (inputs, outputs, inquiries, files, interfaces) to estimate effort. Question 37. Planning Poker is an estimation technique used in: A. Waterfall projects only B. Agile Scrum teams to estimate story effort using story points C. Risk management for probability calculation D. Code review time allocation Answer: B Explanation: Planning Poker is a collaborative, consensus-based method for estimating user stories in Agile. Question 38. Which risk response strategy involves changing the project plan to eliminate the risk entirely? A. Transfer B. Mitigate C. Accept D. Avoid Answer: D Explanation: Avoidance removes the risk by altering the project scope, schedule, or approach so the risk no longer exists.
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
Question 39. In GitFlow, which branch is typically used for preparing a new production release? A. feature B. develop C. release D. hotfix Answer: C Explanation: The release branch is created from develop, stabilized, and then merged into master for production. Question 40. Trunk-based development encourages: A. Long-lived feature branches with frequent merges B. A single main branch with short-lived feature toggles or branches C. No branching at all D. Separate repositories for each microservice Answer: B Explanation: Trunk-based development uses a single mainline (trunk) and integrates small, frequent changes, often using feature flags. Question 41. Continuous Integration (CI) primarily aims to: A. Deploy code to production automatically after each commit B. Detect integration problems early by building and testing code frequently C. Replace the need for unit testing D. Manage project schedules Answer: B Explanation: CI automates building and testing of code on each commit, revealing integration issues as soon as possible.
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
Question 45. Perfective maintenance primarily focuses on: A. Fixing security vulnerabilities B. Enhancing existing functionality or performance based on user feedback C. Migrating to a new programming language D. Rewriting legacy code from scratch Answer: B Explanation: Perfective maintenance improves the system’s performance, usability, or maintainability without fixing defects. Question 46. When deciding between refactoring and re-engineering a legacy system, the primary factor is: A. The programming language used originally B. The cost and risk associated with each approach relative to business value C. The number of developers on the team D. The existence of unit tests Answer: B Explanation: Organizations evaluate cost, risk, and expected benefits to choose whether incremental refactoring or a full re-engineering effort is justified. Question 47. **According to the ACM Code of Ethics, a computing professional must: ** A. Prioritize profit over user privacy B. Ensure the safety, health, and welfare of the public in all software work C. Keep all source code proprietary D. Avoid disclosing security vulnerabilities to users Answer: B Explanation: The ACM Code of Ethics emphasizes the responsibility to protect public safety, health, and welfare.
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
Question 48. The MIT license differs from GPL in that: A. MIT requires derivative works to be open source B. GPL imposes copyleft, while MIT is permissive and allows proprietary use C. MIT mandates source code distribution with binaries D. GPL has no restrictions on redistribution Answer: B Explanation: The MIT license is permissive, allowing closed-source derivatives, whereas GPL enforces copyleft, requiring derived works to remain open source. Question 49. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “definition of done” in Scrum? A. It is optional for each sprint B. It includes criteria such as code reviewed, tested, and documented C. It only applies to the final release of the product D. It is defined by the Scrum Master alone Answer: B Explanation: The Definition of Done (DoD) lists the shared criteria a product increment must satisfy, including testing, review, and documentation. Question 50. In Kanban, a cumulative flow diagram is used to: A. Estimate story points B. Visualize work-in-progress limits across columns over time C. Track sprint velocity D. Show team member utilization Answer: B Explanation: The cumulative flow diagram displays the amount of work in each state, helping identify bottlenecks and WIP trends.
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
A. A sudden increase in bug reports B. A time-boxed research activity to explore a technical approach C. The final release of the product D. A high-priority user story Answer: B Explanation: Spikes are short, time-boxed investigations used to reduce uncertainty. Question 55. In the V-Model, which testing activity validates the system against the original user requirements? A. Unit testing B. Integration testing C. System testing D. Acceptance testing Answer: D Explanation: Acceptance testing ensures the final system fulfills the stakeholder’s original requirements. Question 56. Which risk mitigation technique involves building a prototype to reduce uncertainty about user needs? A. Avoidance B. Transfer C. Mitigation through prototyping D. Acceptance Answer: C Explanation: Prototyping provides early feedback, thereby reducing the risk of misunderstood requirements. Question 57. The “burn-down chart” in Scrum visualizes:
Development Process B
Ultimate Exam
A. The cumulative effort spent on each user story B. Remaining work (tasks or story points) versus time in a sprint C. The number of defects found per day D. Team member availability Answer: B Explanation: A burn-down chart shows how much work remains in the sprint, helping track progress toward the goal. Question 58. Which of the following best describes a “non-functional requirement” that addresses “time to first byte” for a web page? A. Functional requirement B. Performance requirement C. Security requirement D. Usability requirement Answer: B Explanation: “Time to first byte” is a performance metric, a type of non-functional requirement. Question 59. When a requirement is labeled as “traceable,” it means that: A. It can be converted into code automatically B. Its origin and downstream artefacts are documented and can be followed through the lifecycle C. It is not subject to change D. It has been approved by the legal department Answer: B Explanation: Traceability ensures each requirement can be linked forward to design, code, and tests, and backward to its source.
