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Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Question 1.Which phase of the Waterfall model follows the Requirements phase? A) Design B) Implementation C) Verification D) Maintenance Answer: A Explanation: In the Waterfall lifecycle, after gathering and documenting requirements, the next logical step is to create a system design that specifies how the requirements will be satisfied. Question 2.In the V-Model, which testing activity is directly associated with the Design phase? A) Unit testing B) Integration testing C) System testing D) Acceptance testing Answer: B Explanation: The V-Model maps each development phase to a complementary testing phase; Design is linked to Integration testing, which verifies interactions among components. Question 3.What is the primary driver of the Spiral model’s iterations? A) Customer feedback B) Risk assessment C) Cost estimation D) Technology trends Answer: B Explanation: The Spiral model emphasizes risk analysis at each iteration, allowing teams to address high-risk items early and mitigate them before proceeding.
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Question 4.In the Unified Process, which phase focuses on establishing the system’s architectural baseline? A) Inception B) Elaboration C) Construction D) Transition Answer: B Explanation: During Elaboration, the architecture is defined and validated, and major risks are addressed before large-scale construction begins. Question 5.The Agile Manifesto values “individuals and interactions over processes and tools.” Which of the following statements best reflects this value? A) Teams should adopt the most advanced tooling available. B) Documentation must be exhaustive before coding starts. C) Face-to-face communication is preferred over rigid procedures. D) Processes should be strictly followed to guarantee quality. Answer: C Explanation: The manifesto emphasizes direct communication and collaboration, prioritizing people over formalized processes. Question 6.In Scrum, who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product resulting from the work of the Development Team? A) Scrum Master B) Product Owner C) Development Team D) Stakeholder
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Observation allows analysts to see how experts perform tasks in context, uncovering implicit knowledge that may not be expressed verbally. Question 10.A functional requirement describes: A) System performance under load. B) Security constraints. C) A specific behavior the system must exhibit. D) The technology stack to be used. Answer: C Explanation: Functional requirements define what the system should do (behaviors, functions), whereas non-functional requirements address quality attributes like performance and security. Question 11.Which of the following is a non-functional requirement? A) The system shall generate a monthly sales report. B) The system shall encrypt all user passwords. C) The system shall support 10,000 concurrent users. D) The system shall allow users to reset their password. Answer: C Explanation: Supporting a specific number of concurrent users is a performance-related, non-functional requirement. Question 12.What does the acronym SRS stand for in requirements documentation? A) System Review Specification B) Software Requirements Specification C) Standardized Requirements Summary D) Secure Release Schedule
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: SRS is a formal document that captures all functional and non-functional requirements for a software system. Question 13.In the INVEST criteria for user stories, “I” stands for: A) Independent B) Integrated C) Immediate D) Incremental Answer: A Explanation: “Independent” means a user story should be self-contained so it can be developed and delivered without depending on other stories. Question 14.What is the primary purpose of a traceability matrix? A) To map test cases to requirements for coverage verification. B) To prioritize requirements based on stakeholder value. C) To estimate effort for each requirement. D) To define the system architecture. Answer: A Explanation: A traceability matrix links requirements to design artifacts, code, and test cases, ensuring each requirement is verified. Question 15.During impact analysis, which activity is performed? A) Writing unit tests for new code. B) Determining the effect of a change on existing components. C) Conducting user acceptance testing. D) Deploying the system to production.
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: The Open/Closed principle encourages designing modules that can be extended without altering existing source code. Question 19.What does “high cohesion” imply about a module’s responsibilities? A) It performs many unrelated functions. B) Its responsibilities are closely related and focused. C) It has many external dependencies. D) It is tightly coupled with other modules. Answer: B Explanation: High cohesion means a module’s elements are strongly related, making it easier to understand and maintain. Question 20.Low coupling between modules primarily improves: A) System performance. B) Ease of module replacement and reuse. C) Number of lines of code. D) User interface design. Answer: B Explanation: Low coupling reduces interdependencies, allowing modules to be changed or reused with minimal impact on others. Question 21.Which UML diagram best represents static relationships among classes? A) Sequence diagram B) Activity diagram C) Class diagram D) State machine diagram Answer: C
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Class diagrams depict static structure, showing classes, attributes, operations, and relationships such as inheritance and associations. Question 22.A UML Sequence diagram primarily models: A) Object lifecycles over time. B) Interactions and message flow between objects. C) System deployment topology. D) Data storage structures. Answer: B Explanation: Sequence diagrams illustrate how objects interact in a particular scenario, focusing on the order of messages. Question 23.What is the main purpose of coding standards? A) To enforce a single programming language. B) To improve code readability, maintainability, and consistency. C) To guarantee zero defects. D) To speed up compilation. Answer: B Explanation: Coding standards define conventions that make code easier for teams to read, understand, and maintain. Question 24.Which version control system uses the concept of “branches” and “merges” to manage parallel development? A) CVS B) Git C) FTP D) HTTP
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Verification checks that the product conforms to its specifications —“building the product right.” Question 28.Validation in software engineering answers the question: A) Are we building the right product? B) Are we building the product right? C) Are we delivering on schedule? D) Are we using the correct tools? Answer: A Explanation: Validation ensures the final system meets user needs and expectations —“building the right product.” Question 29.What type of testing focuses on individual units or components in isolation? A) System testing B) Integration testing C) Unit testing D) Acceptance testing Answer: C Explanation: Unit testing validates the smallest testable parts of an application, typically a single function or class. Question 30.Integration testing primarily verifies: A) User interface aesthetics. B) Interactions between integrated components. C) Database schema correctness. D) Performance under load.
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Integration testing checks that combined units work together as intended, revealing interface defects. Question 31.System testing is performed: A) By developers on their own code. B) After integration testing to evaluate the complete system. C) Before any code is written. D) Only on prototypes. Answer: B Explanation: System testing validates the fully integrated system against its requirements, typically by an independent test team. Question 32.User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is primarily conducted by: A) Developers B) QA engineers C) End users or customers D) Project managers Answer: C Explanation: UAT involves the actual users confirming the system meets their needs and business processes. Question 33.White-box testing requires knowledge of: A) System requirements only. B) Internal code structure and logic. C) User interface design. D) Business processes.
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Automation allows fast, repeatable execution of test suites, improving efficiency and reliability. Question 37.Static analysis can be performed without: A) Executing the program. B) Accessing source code. C) Using a compiler. D) Understanding design patterns. Answer: A Explanation: Static analysis examines source code or binaries without running the program, detecting defects like style violations or potential bugs. Question 38.Planning Poker is an estimation technique that primarily uses: A) Function point counts. B) Story points assigned collaboratively. C) Expert judgment only. D) Historical cost data. Answer: B Explanation: In Planning Poker, team members reveal numeric estimates (story points) simultaneously, fostering discussion and consensus. Question 39.Function Point Analysis measures: A) Lines of code written. B) The functional size of software based on user-visible features. C) Number of defects per module. D) Execution time of algorithms.
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Function points quantify functional requirements (inputs, outputs, inquiries, files, interfaces) independent of technology. Question 40.The COCOMO model is used to estimate: A) Test case count. B) Development effort in person-months. C) Number of required servers. D) User satisfaction score. Answer: B Explanation: COCOMO (Constructive Cost Model) predicts effort, cost, and schedule based on project size and other factors. Question 41.Risk mitigation strategies aim to: A) Eliminate all project risks. B) Reduce the probability or impact of identified risks. C) Increase project scope. D) Delay project delivery. Answer: B Explanation: Mitigation reduces either the likelihood of a risk occurring or its consequences if it does occur. Question 42.In agile metrics, “velocity” measures: A) Number of defects per sprint. B) Amount of work (story points) completed per iteration. C) Time taken to fix a bug. D) Number of meetings held.
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Code coverage measures how much of the program’s source is exercised by the test suite, indicating test thoroughness. Question 46.CMMI Level 3 is characterized by: A) Initial (ad-hoc) processes. B) Managed processes with metrics. C) Defined processes across the organization. D) Optimizing processes for continuous improvement. Answer: C Explanation: Level 3 (Defined) means processes are documented, standardized, and integrated into a coherent organizational standard. Question 47.What is a key characteristic of DevOps culture? A) Strict separation of development and operations teams. B) Emphasis on manual deployment procedures. C) Collaboration and shared responsibility for delivery and operations. D) Use of only waterfall processes. Answer: C Explanation: DevOps breaks down silos, encouraging joint ownership of both development and operational aspects to accelerate delivery. Question 48.Continuous Integration (CI) primarily ensures that: A) All code is automatically deployed to production. B) Every code change is merged into a shared repository and built regularly. C) Documentation is updated daily. D) Users can request new features instantly.
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
Explanation: CI automates the building and testing of each integration, detecting integration issues early. Question 49.Continuous Delivery differs from Continuous Deployment in that: A) Delivery includes automated testing, but deployment to production requires manual approval. B) Delivery skips testing altogether. C) Deployment never happens in Continuous Delivery. D) Both are identical concepts. Answer: A Explanation: Continuous Delivery ensures software can be released at any time, but actual production release may be a manual decision; Continuous Deployment pushes automatically. Question 50.The “Red-Green-Refactor” cycle in Test-Driven Development (TDD) starts with: A) Writing production code first. B) Writing a failing test (Red). C) Refactoring existing code. D) Deploying to production. Answer: B Explanation: TDD begins by writing a test that fails because the functionality does not exist yet (Red), then writing minimal code to pass (Green), followed by refactoring. Question 51.Site Reliability Engineering (SRE) treats operations as: A) A separate discipline from software engineering. B) A set of manual procedures. C) A software problem that can be solved with engineering practices.
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
D) Shortest possible release cycles only. Answer: B Explanation: Sustainability includes maintainability, resource efficiency, and minimizing ecological footprints over the software’s lifecycle. Question 55.In the Waterfall model, which of the following is a major drawback? A) Early detection of design flaws. B) Flexibility to accommodate changing requirements. C) Difficulty accommodating changes after a phase is completed. D) Continuous stakeholder feedback. Answer: C Explanation: Waterfall’s sequential nature makes it costly and cumbersome to modify requirements once a later phase has begun. Question 56.The “V” in V-Model stands for: A) Verification only. B) Validation only. C) The shape of the model, illustrating development on the left side and testing on the right. D) Variable scope. Answer: C Explanation: The V-Model is visualized as a V, with development activities descending on the left and corresponding testing activities ascending on the right. Question 57.In the Spiral model, each loop typically includes which four activities? A) Planning, coding, testing, deployment. B) Requirements, design, implementation, maintenance. C) Determine objectives, identify and resolve risks, develop and verify, plan the next iteration.
Development Process C
Ultimate Exam
D. Documentation, training, support, retirement. Answer: C Explanation: The Spiral’s phases are: set objectives, identify and resolve risks, develop and verify, and plan the next iteration. Question 58.What is the main benefit of the Inception phase in the Unified Process? A) Detailed coding guidelines are produced. B) Business case, scope, and feasibility are established. C) All test cases are written. D) System is deployed to production. Answer: B Explanation: Inception defines the project’s vision, scope, and feasibility, establishing a foundation for subsequent phases. Question 59.The Scrum “Daily Stand-up” is time-boxed to: A) 15 minutes. B) 30 minutes. C) 1 hour. D) No limit. Answer: A Explanation: The Daily Scrum is a brief, time-boxed meeting (usually 15 minutes) for the team to synchronize activities. Question 60.In Kanban, a “pull” system means: A) Work is assigned by a manager. B) New work is taken only when capacity exists. C) All tasks are pushed to developers simultaneously. D) Work items are automatically generated by AI.
