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Question 1. Which license requires that any derivative work be distributed under the same license terms? A) Apache 2. B) MIT C) GPLv D) BSD 3-Clause Answer: C Explanation: The GNU General Public License (GPL) is a copyleft license; it mandates that modified or derived works are also released under the GPL, preserving the same freedoms. Question 2. In a telecom procurement scenario, which license is most attractive for a vendor that wants minimal obligations when integrating open-source code into a proprietary product? A) GPLv B) Apache 2. C) LGPL D) MIT Answer: D Explanation: The MIT license imposes only a simple attribution requirement, allowing the vendor to combine the code with proprietary software without needing to open-source their own code. Question 3. What is the primary difference between a Physical Network Function (PNF) and a Virtualized Network Function (VNF)? A) PNFs run on containers, VNFs run on bare metal. B) PNFs are hardware-based, VNFs are software instances on virtual machines. C) PNFs use cloud-native APIs, VNFs use legacy APIs. D) PNFs are only used in 5G, VNFs only in 4G. Answer: B Explanation: PNFs are dedicated hardware appliances, whereas VNFs are software implementations that run on general-purpose servers within virtual machines.
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Question 4. Which of the following best describes a Cloud-Native Network Function (CNF)? A) A VNF packaged as a virtual machine image. B) A network function running inside a container orchestrated by Kubernetes. C) A hardware accelerator for packet processing. D) A legacy monolithic application deployed on a server. Answer: B Explanation: CNFs are containerized network functions designed to run in cloud-native environments, typically managed by Kubernetes. Question 5. Why is contributing upstream important for telcos using open-source projects? A) It reduces the need for internal testing. B) It guarantees vendor lock-in. C) It prevents technical debt and ensures shared maintenance. D) It eliminates the need for licensing. Answer: C Explanation: Upstream contributions allow the community to maintain and improve the code, reducing the risk of divergent forks and accumulating technical debt. Question 6. Which organization is responsible for the governance of the Linux kernel? A) Cloud Native Computing Foundation (CNCF) B) Open RAN Alliance C) Linux Foundation (LF) D) ETSI Answer: C Explanation: The Linux Foundation oversees the development and legal governance of the Linux kernel and related projects. Question 7. The Cloud Native Computing Foundation (CNCF) primarily hosts which of the following projects? A) OpenStack
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Answer: B Explanation: CRI-O is a lightweight CRI implementation that uses runc to run OCI-compatible containers within Kubernetes. Question 11. What is the main advantage of using Podman over Docker for telco workloads? A) Podman requires a daemon. B) Podman supports rootless containers, enhancing security. C) Podman cannot run on Linux. D) Podman does not support OCI images. Answer: B Explanation: Podman runs containers without a central daemon and supports rootless operation, reducing attack surface for telecom environments. Question 12. In Kubernetes, which object represents a set of identical pods managed together? A) Service B) Deployment C) ConfigMap D) StatefulSet Answer: B Explanation: A Deployment controls the desired state of a replica set, which in turn manages a group of identical pods. Question 13. Which Kubernetes resource provides a stable IP address and DNS name for a set of pods? A) Ingress B) ConfigMap C) Service D) DaemonSet Answer: C Explanation: A Service abstracts a group of pods, providing a stable virtual IP and DNS name for internal or external access.
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Question 14. What distinguishes a “Far-Edge” data center from a “Near-Edge” deployment? A) Far-Edge is located within the core network; Near-Edge is at the user premises. B) Far-Edge has higher latency tolerance than Near-Edge. C) Far-Edge is deployed at centralized metropolitan sites, while Near-Edge sits at cell sites or small local facilities. D) Far-Edge only supports storage, Near-Edge only supports compute. Answer: C Explanation: Far-Edge facilities are larger regional points of presence, whereas Near-Edge (or micro-edge) installations are placed close to the radio units to meet ultra-low latency needs. Question 15. Which service-mesh technology is a graduated CNCF project that provides traffic management, security, and observability for microservices? A) Linkerd B) Istio C) Consul D) Envoy Answer: B Explanation: Istio, built on Envoy, offers a full-featured service mesh with policies, telemetry, and security capabilities; it is a CNCF graduated project. Question 16. In a service mesh, what is the primary role of a sidecar proxy? A) Store persistent data for the application. B) Execute the application code. C) Intercept inbound and outbound traffic for policy enforcement and telemetry. D) Provide DNS resolution for the cluster. Answer: C Explanation: The sidecar proxy (e.g., Envoy) runs alongside each pod, handling all network traffic to enforce mesh policies and collect metrics. Question 17. Which SDN principle separates the control plane from the data plane?
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Answer: B Explanation: DPDK provides a set of libraries for fast packet processing in user space, bypassing kernel network stack overhead. Question 21. SR-IOV enables which of the following benefits for virtualized network functions? A. Automatic scaling of VNFs across multiple clouds. B. Direct assignment of virtual functions to VMs for near-bare-metal performance. C. Encryption of all traffic between VNFs. D. Centralized logging of VNF events. Answer: B Explanation: Single-Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV) allows a physical NIC to expose virtual functions that can be directly assigned to VMs, reducing latency and CPU overhead. Question 22. Which open-source platform is known for providing end-to-end orchestration of network services, including VNF onboarding and lifecycle management? A. OpenStack B. ONAP (Open Network Automation Platform) C. OpenDaylight D. OSM (Open Source MANO) Answer: B Explanation: ONAP offers a comprehensive MANO framework for designing, deploying, and operating network services and VNFs. Question 23. In 5G Core (5GC), what does the Service-Based Architecture (SBA) replace from earlier LTE EPC designs? A. Physical base stations B. Centralized packet gateways C. Point-to-point interfaces with RESTful APIs between functions D. Radio resource control procedures Answer: C
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Explanation: SBA introduces loosely coupled, HTTP/2-based APIs between core network functions, moving away from the rigid, point-to-point interfaces of LTE EPC. Question 24. Which 5G core network function is responsible for user authentication and authorization? A. AMF (Access and Mobility Management Function) B. SMF (Session Management Function) C. UDM (Unified Data Management) D. PCF (Policy Control Function) Answer: C Explanation: The Unified Data Management (UDM) function stores subscriber data and handles authentication and authorization procedures. **Question 25. Network slicing in 5G primarily enables which business capability? ** A. Unified hardware for all services B. Isolation of logical networks with customized QoS per vertical industry C. Shared spectrum among operators D. Automatic firmware updates for devices Answer: B Explanation: Network slicing creates multiple virtual networks on a shared physical infrastructure, each tailored for specific performance or regulatory requirements. Question 26. In O-RAN, which unit is responsible for lower-layer radio functions such as FFT and digital beamforming? A. RU (Radio Unit) B. DU (Distributed Unit) C. CU (Centralized Unit) D. RIC (RAN Intelligent Controller) Answer: A Explanation: The Radio Unit (RU) handles physical layer processing, including FFT, modulation, and beamforming.
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A. Trust all internal traffic by default. B. Verify every request regardless of its source, using identity and context. C. Use only hardware firewalls at the perimeter. D. Rely on VPN tunnels for all communications. Answer: B Explanation: Zero Trust enforces continuous verification of users, devices, and services, assuming no implicit trust even inside the network. Question 31. A Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) helps telcos address which risk? A. Physical theft of hardware. B. Unknown open-source component vulnerabilities. C. Signal interference in radio bands. D. Customer churn. Answer: B Explanation: An SBOM lists all components, versions, and licenses of a software product, enabling rapid identification of vulnerable open-source libraries. Question 32. Which regulation specifically governs the handling of personal health information and would impact telco services delivering tele-medicine? A. GDPR B. HIPAA C. PCI-DSS D. CCPA Answer: B Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets standards for protecting health information in the United States. Question 33. In a cloud-native telco stack, which tool is commonly used to automate CI/CD pipelines for network function releases? A. Jenkins B. Nagios C. Wireshark
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D. OpenVPN Answer: A Explanation: Jenkins (or similar tools like GitLab CI) automates building, testing, and deploying container images for network functions. Question 34. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) for an open-source based core network is typically lower than a proprietary solution because: A. Open-source software has no support costs. B. Licensing fees are eliminated, and commodity hardware can be used. C. It requires fewer engineers. D. It eliminates the need for any testing. Answer: B Explanation: Open-source eliminates license fees and enables use of off-the-shelf hardware, reducing CAPEX and OPEX, though support and integration costs still exist. Question 35. Which of the following strategies most effectively reduces vendor lock-in for a telco adopting open-source technologies? A. Using proprietary APIs exclusively. B. Standardizing on open-source APIs such as gNMI and OpenConfig. C. Purchasing a single-vendor integrated solution. D. Avoiding any open-source components. Answer: B Explanation: Open, community-driven APIs enable interoperability across vendors, allowing the operator to switch or mix components without being tied to a single supplier. Question 36. In the context of edge computing, what does “micro-cloud” typically refer to? A. A small public cloud provider. B. A lightweight Kubernetes cluster deployed at a cell site. C. A virtual machine hosted in a data center. D. A peer-to-peer network of smartphones. Answer: B
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Question 40. In NFV, what does “VNF scaling out” refer to? A. Increasing the CPU frequency of a single VNF instance. B. Adding additional VNF instances to handle higher load. C. Moving a VNF from a data center to the edge. D. Converting a VNF into a PNF. Answer: B Explanation: Scaling out (horizontal scaling) creates more VNF instances to distribute traffic and improve throughput. Question 41. Which OpenStack component is most closely aligned with the VIM role in ETSI NFV? A. Nova (Compute) B. Neutron (Networking) C. Cinder (Block Storage) D. All of the above together provide VIM capabilities. Answer: D Explanation: The combination of Nova, Neutron, and Cinder abstracts compute, network, and storage resources, fulfilling the VIM responsibilities. Question 42. Which protocol is commonly used for the O-RAN open fronthaul interface to transport IQ samples? A. eCPRI B. GTP-U C. HTTP/ D. MQTT Answer: A Explanation: eCPRI (enhanced Common Public Radio Interface) is the standardized protocol for low-latency transport of digitized radio data in O-RAN. Question 43. In a 5G network, the AMF function primarily handles: A. User plane packet forwarding. B. Session management. C. Access and mobility management, including registration and handover.
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D. Policy control. Answer: C Explanation: The Access and Mobility Management Function (AMF) deals with UE registration, connection, and mobility procedures. Question 44. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a 5G network slice? A. Dedicated RAN resources B. Customized core network functions C. Separate spectrum licenses per slice D. Specific QoS policies Answer: C Explanation: Spectrum licensing is regulated at the operator level and not sliced per network slice; slices share the same licensed spectrum. Question 45. The Non-Real-Time RIC in O-RAN primarily hosts which type of applications? A. Real-time radio resource control. B. Long-term policy optimization and AI/ML model training. C. Physical layer beamforming. D. Packet forwarding. Answer: B Explanation: The Non-Real-Time RIC runs with latency >100 ms, suitable for analytics, policy generation, and machine-learning model training. Question 46. Which open-source project provides a reference implementation of the 5G Core (5GC) for research and testing? A. OpenAirInterface (OAI) B. Magma (by Facebook) C. ONAP D. OpenDaylight Answer: B Explanation: Magma offers a cloud-native, open-source 5GC implementation that can be deployed on commodity hardware.
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Question 50. Which of the following tools can generate an SBOM for a container image? A. Trivy B. tcpdump C. iperf D. Nmap Answer: A Explanation: Trivy can scan container images and output an SBOM in SPDX or CycloneDX format, listing all included packages. Question 51. Which GDPR principle requires that personal data be processed only for the purposes explicitly stated at collection? A. Data minimization B. Purpose limitation C. Right to be forgotten D. Data portability Answer: B Explanation: Purpose limitation mandates that data be used only for the specific, explicit purposes for which it was collected. Question 52. In the context of telco DevOps, what does “GitOps” refer to? A. Managing infrastructure solely through Git repository state and automated operators. B. Using Git for source code versioning only. C. Deploying applications manually via CLI. D. Storing binary artifacts in Git. Answer: A Explanation: GitOps treats the Git repo as the single source of truth; changes trigger automated reconciliation of the desired state in the environment. Question 53. Which Kubernetes feature enables automatic scaling of pods based on custom metrics such as CPU usage? A. Horizontal Pod Autoscaler (HPA) B. PersistentVolumeClaim (PVC)
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C. ConfigMap D. DaemonSet Answer: A Explanation: HPA adjusts the number of pod replicas in response to observed metrics, supporting dynamic scaling. Question 54. What is the primary advantage of using a “sidecar” pattern for logging in containers? A. It reduces the container image size. B. It isolates logging responsibilities, allowing independent updates without touching the main application. C. It eliminates the need for a logging backend. D. It encrypts all logs automatically. Answer: B Explanation: The sidecar runs alongside the main container, handling logging independently, which simplifies updates and improves reliability. Question 55. Which open-source project provides a high-performance, cloud-native packet processing framework that integrates with DPDK? A. Open vSwitch (OVS) B. VPP (Vector Packet Processing) C. HAProxy D. Calico Answer: B Explanation: VPP leverages DPDK for fast packet I/O and offers a programmable data plane suitable for telco workloads. Question 56. In an O-RAN deployment, which interface connects the RU to the DU? A. Open Fronthaul Interface (OFH) – eCPRI or 7-2x split B. Open X-Haul Interface (OXI) C. Open Backhaul Interface (OBI) D. Open Core Interface (OCI) Answer: A
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Question 60. Which metric is most directly associated with the performance of a DPDK-enabled packet processing application? A. Number of Kubernetes pods. B. Packets per second (PPS) throughput. C. Database query latency. D. Disk I/O throughput. Answer: B Explanation: DPDK aims to maximize packet processing rates; PPS is the primary performance indicator. Question 61. What is the purpose of the “Network Slice Selection Assistance Information” (NSSAI) sent by a UE in 5G? A. To request a specific radio frequency. B. To indicate which network slices the UE is authorized to use. C. To provide GPS coordinates. D. To negotiate encryption algorithms. Answer: B Explanation: NSSAI carries the list of slice identifiers that the UE can access, enabling the network to select an appropriate slice. Question 62. Which open-source project provides a reference implementation of the RAN Intelligent Controller (RIC) platform? A. OAI-RIC B. ONAP RIC C. O-RAN Software Community (OSC) RIC D. OpenRAN SDK Answer: C Explanation: The OSC RIC platform offers a framework for developing near-real-time and non-real-time xApps and rApps. Question 63. In a telco environment, which of the following best describes “vendor neutrality” in API design? A. Using proprietary JSON schemas. B. Defining APIs based on open standards like OpenAPI and OpenConfig.
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C. Embedding vendor-specific authentication tokens. D. Restricting access to a single vendor’s SDK. Answer: B Explanation: Open standards promote interoperability and allow multiple vendors to implement the same API without lock-in. Question 64. Which of the following is a primary reason for telcos to adopt container-native VNFs (CNFs) over traditional VNFs? A. CNFs require dedicated hardware appliances. B. CNFs enable faster scaling and better resource utilization through Kubernetes. C. CNFs eliminate the need for any orchestration. D. CNFs are only compatible with legacy OSS/BSS. Answer: B Explanation: CNFs leverage container orchestration for rapid scaling, self-healing, and efficient packing on shared infrastructure. Question 65. Which telemetry protocol is commonly used by Istio sidecar proxies to export metrics to monitoring systems? A. SNMP B. OpenTelemetry (OTLP) C. NetFlow D. Syslog Answer: B Explanation: Istio’s Envoy sidecars can emit telemetry via OpenTelemetry Protocol (OTLP), which integrates with Prometheus, Jaeger, etc. Question 66. In an NFV environment, what does the term “VIM-NFV-IaaS” refer to? A. A virtualized infrastructure manager that directly controls physical hardware. B. A cloud-native hypervisor for containers. C. An abstraction layer that presents compute, storage, and network resources as services to NFV components. D. A network protocol for inter-VNF communication. Answer: C
