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Download RCIS PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED 2026-2027!! and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity!
RCIS PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED 2026-20271! What is the formula for calculating cardiac output? - ANSWER CO= HR x SV What is stroke volume related to? - ANSWER preload Preload is most impacted by..... - ANSWER Increased filling volumes A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate.... - ANSWER Increased afterload Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by.... - ANSWER Radius of the vessel The formula for BP is....- ANSWER BP = CO x SVR What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral insufficiency - ANSWER V wave An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology - ANSWER RV infarct If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment - ANSWER JVD What is the most common cause of Pulmonic stenosis - ANSWER Congenital The Blue proximal part of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan - ANSWER 30 cm When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10 cc of saline into the and the temperature change is measured in the - ANSWER RA, PA Equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP are found in - ANSWER restrictive pericarditis Signs of Right sided heart failure include - ANSWER JVD Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present? SVC sat= 67% IVC sat= 71% RA sat= 85% RV sat= 85% PA sat= 85% LA sat= 98% LV sat= 98% AO sat= 98% - ANSWER L to R ASD What type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called - ANSWER Ostium Secundum What is the Flamm's equation - ANSWER 3(SVC) + 1(IVC)/4 The formula used to calculate MAP is - ANSWER 1 (systolic) + 2 (diastolic)/3 What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot - ANSWER Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSD Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises - ANSWER Truncas Arteriosus Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of - ANSWER Cardiac Tamponade What does RAD stand for - ANSWER Radiation absorbed dose What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images - ANSWER Image intensifier What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually - ANSWER 5 REM Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead - ANSWER .5 What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the X-ray source - ANSWER 6 feet In an X-ray tube what is the charge on the cathode and the anode - ANSWER Cathode: positive Anode: negative Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation - ANSWER Lateral What converts x-rays into an image - ANSWER Image Intensifier The contrast that is best for a patient is - ANSWER low osmolality Radiolucent means - ANSWER X-rays are permitted to pass through Radiopaque means - ANSWER X-rays are not permitted to pass through ReoPro works on - ANSWER lib/Illa receptors Heparin potentiates the action of - ANSWER Antithrombin Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of - ANSWER Thrombin An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads Il, Ill, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect - ANSWER inferior wall An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded - ANSWER Cx How do you test the defibrillator - ANSWER discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load) What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T Wave - ANSWER You could put them into Vfib In 1st degree heart block, where is the conductive delay - ANSWER AV node What is the normal PR interval - ANSWER .12-.20 If a patient is attached to the monitor, V tach is rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do - ANSWER Unsymchronized cardioversion If a patient is on a monitor in SVT, SBP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and SOB. What should you do - ANSWER Do immediate synchronized cardioversion A common complication of placing a pacing electrode/wire is - ANSWER Perforation/Preicardial Effusion/Tamponade A pacing generator that paces in both chambers, senses in the ventricle, and inhibits QRS complexes is a - ANSWER DVI A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses both chambers, and triggers or inhibits is a - ANSWER DDD A pacing generator that paces in the atria, senses the atria, and inhibits pacing is a - ANSWER AAI What is the formula for calculating SVR - ANSWER Mean OR- Mean RA/CO Which cardiac output would be most accurate in a patient with tricuspid regurgitation - ANSWER FICK Which right heart pressure best reflects LV preload - ANSWER PCWP Which balloon is used for valvuloplasty - ANSWER inoue Aortic stenosis demonstrates a pressure that is elevated in the left ventricle anda pressure that is lower in the - ANSWER Aortic arch Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following data Arterial O2 sat= 98% Pulmonary artery O02 = 74% RV O2 sat= 71% Hgb= 14.7 PCWP= 12 O2 consumption= 250 ml/min Constant= 1.36 RA= 5 Mean gradient= 70 - ANSWER 5.2 Limin Calculate the stroke volume on this patient ESV= 35 EDV= 85 BP= 120/74 EF= 40% HR= 70 - ANSWER 50 cc Calculate an Aortic valve area with the following information HR= 85 Mean gradient= 64 CO= 4.2L/min BP= 136/74 Sep= .37 - ANSWER .37 cm2 Calculate the regurgitant fraction of a patient who has a thermal CO of 4.1L/min and an angiographic CO of 5.4L/min - ANSWER 24% This patient has a cardiac output of 5.1L/min. Calculate the SVR of this patient with the following data Mean PA= 24 Mean RA= 5 Mean PCWP= 15 Mean AO= 95 - ANSWER 1411 dynec/sec/cm-5 If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and a bruit is a present, what should be suspected - ANSWER Pseudoaneurysm An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0 cm can be a finding for what - ANSWER Aortic aneurysm Back pain not relieved NTG, morphine or oxygen and not associated with EKG changes can indicate - ANSWER Aortic dissection Which stent is self expanding - ANSWER Wall stent A catheter has a diameter of 2.66mm. What French size is it - ANSWER BFR In relation to a coronary lesion where should the wire not be placed A. As distal as possible B. In the nearest side branch C. Ina distal side branch D. Proximal to the lesion E. All of the above - ANSWER All of the above Which lesion is best addressed with a Rotoblador - ANSWER Calcified Which catheter should be used to cannulate an LAD with a high take off - ANSWER Amplatz Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include - ANSWER Head of the sternocledomastoid muscle and the clavicular head Calcified lesions are best managed with which device - ANSWER Cutting/scoring balloon When using a temporary pacer, where is the lead placed - ANSWER RV When performing a myocardial biopsy post heart transplant, the biopsy is performed to evaluate - ANSWER potential for rejection of the transplanted heart The drive to breath in a person with no respiratory diseases is - ANSWER Elevated CO2 The drive to breath in a person with COPD is - ANSWER Decreased O2 The greatest risk when performing myocardial biopsy is - ANSWER Perforating of the RV When using the Rotoblador, when should the burr start rotating - ANSWER just proximal to the lesion Akinetic meaans - ANSWER no movementat all Dyskinetic means - ANSWER disorganized movement An ABI measures - ANSWER the difference between brachial and ankle systemic blood pressure The dorsalis pedal pulse is located - ANSWER on the anterior foot The posterior tibial pulse is located - ANSWER near the medial malleolus The site of myoxma is in the - ANSWER LA The best catheter to cross a stenotic aortic valve is - ANSWER AL2 What medications are commonly given when performing a radial procedure - ANSWER NTG, Verapamil, Heparin The Allen's Test assesses the flow in the - ANSWER blood flow in the radial and ulnar arteries The IABP catheter should be placed - ANSWER above the renal artery and below the left subdivision Which of the following symptoms after the use of a closure device warrants evaluation - ANSWER loss of pulses in the foot If the heart rate slows, what happens to stroke volume - ANSWER increases what happens to myocardial contractile force (dp/dt) when the heart rate slows down - ANSWER Increases The Eustachian valve is located - ANSWER between the inferior vena cava and the right atrium The Amplatzer Septal Occluder device is used to - ANSWER Close a PFO Function of the percutamneous Impella - ANSWER Evacuates 2.5 LPM from the LV; delivers it to the ascending aorta, improves CO, increases SV, improves coronary perfusion The head hunter catheter is used to visualize the - ANSWER left and right ICA and ECA The fossa ovalis is located - ANSWER between the RA and LA What is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis - ANSWER Atherosclerosis Renal artery stenosis is most commonly found in the - ANSWER proximal renal artery FFR measures - ANSWER pressure distal to a stenosis True/False when interpreting FFR, an FFR of .80 means that a stenosis causes a 20% drop in blood pressure distal to a lesion - ANSWER True True/False FFR expresses the maximal flow down a vessel in the presence of a stenosis compared to the maximal flow in the absence of a stenosis - ANSWER True True/False When considering FFR, values greater than .75-.80 indicate a non-significant stenosis and lower values indicate a significant stenosis - ANSWER True True/False When considering FFR, a significant stenosis (>70%) may yield an FFR >.80 if there is significant collateral flow to the vessel with the lesion in it - ANSWER True True/False Physical signs of PSA may include (Choose all that apply) A. Palpable pulsatile mass B. Presence of a systolic bruit C. Significant site pain D. Loss of pulse in the opposite legg - ANSWER A. Palpable pulsatile mass B. Presence of a systolic bruit C. Significant site pain Which of the following are not associated with a retroperitoneal blood - ANSWER Cannulation 1 finger breath below the inguinal fold Which organ system is responsible for metabolic changes in pH - ANSWER Kidneys Which of the following organ systems cannot cause changes in pH (Choose all that apply) . Gl/endocrine . Liver/pancreas . Heart/vascular . Kidneys/Lungs - ANSWER A. Gl/endocrine . Liver/pancreas . Heart/vascular QnoDNnyYD Which of the following are necessary prior to correcting an ASD (Choose all that apply) A. Documentation using the ICE catheter B. Evaluation using a sizing balloon C. Identifying the shunt to be in the ostium secundum D. Identifying the shunt to be in the ostium premium - ANSWER A. Documentation using the ICE catheter B. Evaluation using a sizing balloon C. Identifying the shunt to be in the ostium secundum Identify all of the following that pertain to the crushing stent technique A. Created for lesions in a side branch B. Created for lesions in a bifurcation C. The first stent is positioned in the side branch with about 1/3 of its length protruding into the main branch D. A second stent is positioned in the main branch E. The side branch stent is deployed first F. The main branch stent is deployed second crushing the portion of the side branch stent in the main branch - ANSWER All of the Above Contraindications for closure devices include (Choose all that apply) A. PVD B. Diabetes C. Cannulation above the inguinal fold D. Cannulation in the profunda - ANSWER All of the above The incidence of vascular complications increases when the groin stick is how far below the inguinal fold (Choose all that Apply) <1cm 2-3cm 3-4cm . >4 cm - ANSWER B. 2-3 cm .3-4cm >4cm pooom> The PR interval is .26. the conduction delay is not in the (Choose all that apply) A. SA node B. AV node C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje fibers - ANSWER A. SA node C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje fibers The laser as an interventional technique eliminates plaque by - ANSWER vaporizing The Impella device evacuates blood from the and delivers it to the - ANSWER LV, AO Which of the following are not desired TIMI flow post procedures (Choose all that apply) A. TIMI 0 (no flow) B. TIMI 4 (faint flow) C. TIMI 2 (sluggish flow) D. TIMI 3 (normal flow) - ANSWER A. TIMI 0 (no flow) B. TIMI 1 (faint flow) C. TIMI 2 (sluggish flow) Increasing the rate of rise on the power injector results in (Choose all that apply) . Decreased catheter whip . Decreased amount of contrast needed . Increased amount of contrast needed . No change in the amount of contrast needed . Decreased chance of injuring the LV - ANSWER A. Decreased catheter whip . No change in the amount of contrast needed . Decreased chance of injuring the LV momoomp True/False A. A risk factor for CAD B. Decreased preload C. increased afterload D. An indication for Coumadin therapy - ANSWER A. A risk factor for CAD C. increased afterload Choose from the following all of the correct BP equations A.BP=SVXSVR B. BP =CP x SVR C. BP =HRx SV D. BP = HR x SV x SVR - ANSWER B. BP = CP x SVR D. BP =HRx SV x SVR Mitral insufficiency is evaluated by which of the following components of a waveform - ANSWER v wave In order to determine if a patient has MR which of the following pressures must be recorded - ANSWER PCW Identify which pathologies would increase RVEDP (choose all that apply) A. RV infarct B. Systemic hypertension C. Chronic COPD D. Chronic pulmonary hypertension - ANSWER A. RV infarct C. Chronic COPD D. Chronic pulmonary hypertension An elevated RA waveform and elevated RA pressure could be caused by (Choose all that apply) A.TR B. RV MI C. Decreased O2 sat D. ASD - ANSWER A. TR B. RV Ml D. ASD Pulmonic stenosis (Choose all that apply) A. Result from MR B. is a congenital anomaly C. Occurs with cardiomyopathy and pulmonary hypertension D. Is a narrowing of the pulmonic valve - ANSWER B. is a congenital anomaly D. Is a narrowing of the pulmonic valve The blue proximal port of the swan (Choose all that apply) A. is located 45 cm from the distal tip of the swan B. the port used to measure PCW C. Is located 30 cm from the distal tip of the swan D. The port used to inject saline for a cardiac output - ANSWER C. Is located 30 cm from the distal tip of the swan D. The port used to inject saline for a cardiac output The transducer is zeroed and falls off the table to the floor (Choose all that apply) A. The pressure being read is now reading higher B. The pressure being read is now lower C. The transducer dropping to the floor wont affect the pressure readings D. The transducer should be re-zeroed - ANSWER A. The pressure being read is now reading higher D. The transducer should be re-zeroed Pulsus paradoxus (Choose all that apply) . is a sign of tamponade . Demonstrates abnormal variation in filling pressures during inspiration . Can be seen on a PCW tracing . Is caused by cardiomyopathy - ANSWER A. is a sign of tamponade . Demonstrates abnormal variation in filling pressures during inspiration . Can be seen on a PCW tracing QanvDgNmOY Signs of LV failure include (Choose all that apply) A. Bilateral peripheral edema B. Ascities C. Orthopnea and pulmonary congestion D. Decreased exercise tolerance and a decreased EF - ANSWER C. Orthopnea and pulmonary congestion D. Decreased exercise tolerance and a decreased EF Constrictive pericarditis (Choose all that apply) A. causes equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP B. Decreases SV C. Decreased CO D. increases exercise tolerance - ANSWER A. causes equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP B. Decreases SV C. Decreased CO Right heart failure (Choose all that apply) A. Causes a decreased O2 sat B. causes JVD C. causes unilateral peripheral edema D. Causes bilateral peripheral edema - ANSWER B. causes JVD D. Causes bilateral peripheral edema Choose the views that result in a higher dose to the patient C. Lower BP via the kidneys D. lower the BP via the SA node - ANSWER B. Decrease BP C. Lower BP via the kidneys A common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors is - ANSWER Cough Select all the ACE inhibitors A. Enalapril B. Lasix C. Lisinopril D. NTG - ANSWER A. Enalapril C. Lisinopril Which of the following are calcium channel blockers? . Amlodipine . Metoprolol . Felodipine . Nifedipine - ANSWER A. Amlodipine . Felodipine . Nifedipine hoose all of the following tests used to elevate kidney function Urine output GFR Creatinine . Creatinine clearance - ANSWER A. Urine output GFR . Creatinine . Creatinine clearance camDNNSaQ DODODP An inferior wall MI (Choose all that apply) A. Demonstrates ST elevation in leads Il, Ill, and AVE B. Involves the LAD C. Involves the RCA D. Involves the LCx - ANSWER A. Demonstrates ST elevation in leads Il, Ill, and AVE C. Involves the RCA In a 1st degree heart block (Choose all that Apply) A. The delay is in the SA node B. The delay is in the AV node C. The PR interval is >.20 D. The PR interval is <.20 - ANSWER B. The delay is in the AV node C. The PR interval is >.20 An increased LVEDP (Choose all that apply) A. Increases the LV Preload B. Increases the PCWP. C. Increases the LA pressure D. Causes no change in pressures - ANSWER A. Increases the LV Preload B. Increases the PCWP C. Increases the LA pressure An aortic dissection (Choose all that apply) A. Presents with back pain B. Presents with abdominal pain and RUQ pain C. Presents with back pain not relieved with NTG, Morphine, 02 D. Presents with back pain not associated with EKG changes - ANSWER A. Presents with back pain C. Presents with back pain not relieved with NTG, Morphine, 02 D. Presents with back pain not associated with EKG changes The patient c/o pain down the leg when attempting to cannulate the RFA (Choose all that apply) A. The attempt was to lateral B. The attempt was too far above the inguinal fold C. The cannulating needle needs to be re-positioned medially D. the attempt was too inferior (below) the inguinal field - ANSWER A. The attempt was to lateral C. The cannulating needle needs to be re-positioned medially Accurate timing of the IABP (Choose all that apply) A. decreases preload B. increases preload C. Decreases afterload D. increases afterload E. improves coronary circulation F. Does not affect coronary circulation - ANSWER C. Decreases afterload E. improves coronary circulation Calcified lesions are best managed with (Choose all that apply) A. Streptokinase B. ReoPro and a Rotoblador C. Cutting balloon D. Rotoblador - ANSWER C. Cutting balloon D. Rotoblador A person with chronic COPD (choose all that apply) A. has marginally normal saturation B. Has increased CO2 content and anormal O2 sat C. Has increased CO2 and a decreased O2 sat D. Has an increased respiratory rate 
