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Retired NPTE section 2 exam questions with answers, Exams of Nursing

Pepperdine UniversityNursing

Retired NPTE section 2 exam questions with answers

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 05/07/2026

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Retired NPTE section 2 exam
questions with answers
A physical therapist assistant is treating a patient with a rotator
cuff repair. The plan of care has consisted of passive range of
motion. The physician has ordered progression to active range of
motion with gentle strengthening. The assistant should:
1. treat as ordered by the physician and document that physical
therapy evaluation will follow.
2. discontinue treatment until re-evaluation can be done by the
physical therapist.
3. progress to low-level active range of motion exercises and
request re-evaluation by the physical therapist.
4. proceed with passive range of motion and request re-evaluation
by the physical therapist.
1. A physical therapist assistant may not alter a treatment
program without prior evaluation by and approval of the
supervising physical therapist.
2. A physical therapist assistant may not alter a treatment
program without prior evaluation by and approval of the
supervising physical therapist.
3. A physical therapist assistant may not alter a treatment
program without prior evaluation by and approval of the
supervising physical therapist.
Correct:
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Retired NPTE section 2 exam

questions with answers

A physical therapist assistant is treating a patient with a rotator cuff repair. The plan of care has consisted of passive range of motion. The physician has ordered progression to active range of motion with gentle strengthening. The assistant should:

  1. treat as ordered by the physician and document that physical therapy evaluation will follow.
  2. discontinue treatment until re-evaluation can be done by the physical therapist.
  3. progress to low-level active range of motion exercises and request re-evaluation by the physical therapist.
  4. proceed with passive range of motion and request re-evaluation by the physical therapist.
  5. A physical therapist assistant may not alter a treatment program without prior evaluation by and approval of the supervising physical therapist.
  6. A physical therapist assistant may not alter a treatment program without prior evaluation by and approval of the supervising physical therapist.
  7. A physical therapist assistant may not alter a treatment program without prior evaluation by and approval of the supervising physical therapist. Correct:
  1. It is appropriate for a physical therapist assistant to provide interventions within the plan of care but not to change the plan of care without approval of the physical therapist. A patient with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis reports tightness and swelling in multiple joints. Which of the following exercises would be CONTRAINDICATED at this time?
  2. Active assistive range of motion
  3. Active range of motion
  4. Stretching
  5. Isometric
  6. Maintaining range of motion is very important and can be done during periods of swelling with respect to the patient's pain and fatigue.
  7. Maintaining range of motion is very important and can be done during periods of swelling with respect to the patient's pain and fatigue. Correct:
  8. Stretching should not be done across swollen joints because it can distend the joint capsule, increase joint irritability, and prolong the joint reaction.
  9. Isometric exercises can be done by patients during periods of flare-up from rheumatoid arthritis if the exercises are adjusted to the patient's pain tolerance. Which of the following postures is MOST stable?
  10. Kneeling

Correct:

  1. Injury to the deep peroneal (fibular) nerve, which innervates the tibialis anterior, may occur in association with a fibular head and neck fracture. Dysfunction of the tibialis anterior would cause foot drop at heel strike (initial contact). (O'Sullivan, p. 233; Lippert) A seated patient is performing weight-shifting activities. Which of the following terms is the BEST description of this activity?
  2. Mobility
  3. Static postural control
  4. Dynamic postural control
  5. Skill
  6. Mobility refers to being able to move into a position, versus maintaining the position with activity. (p. 161)
  7. Because movement is occurring, this is not a static exercise. (p.

Correct:

  1. Dynamic postural control occurs when the patient must maintain postural control with the center of mass within the limits of stability while other parts of the body are moving. (p.
  1. The patient is not performing a skilled activity. (p. 364) Which of the following is the MOST appropriate rationale for the use of the mechanical device pictured in the graphic?
  1. To prevent the occurrence of alveolar collapse and atelectasis in postoperative patients
  2. To strengthen weak expiratory muscles among patients with neuromuscular disorders
  3. To decrease fatigue of inspiratory and expiratory muscles of patients who are bedridden
  4. To facilitate the use of accessory muscles of respiration of patients who have respiratory distress Correct:
  5. Incentive spirometry emphasizes sustained maximum inspiration and has been advocated primarily to prevent the occurrence of alveolar collapse and atelectasis in postoperative patients (p. 150).
  6. Weakness of expiratory muscles is not addressed by use of incentive inspirometry.
  7. Fatigue of expiratory muscles is not addressed by use of incentive inspirometry.
  8. Effective inspiration favors development of the diaphragm over compensatory mechanisms, such as use of accessory muscles of respiration. A patient has plantar flexor spasticity and dorsiflexion weakness in the left lower extremity following a cerebrovascular accident. The patient is receiving a biofeedback session with 2 channels monitoring the gastrocnemius and anterior tibialis muscles. The patient's goals for the biofeedback session should be to:
  9. decrease the signal from the anterior tibialis and increase the
  1. in front of the patient on the involved side.
  2. behind the patient on the involved side.
  3. Although the assistant should be in front of the patient, standing on the uninvolved side does not provide adequate stability.
  4. Standing behind the patient does not provide adequate stability and would be better positioning for a patient ascending stairs. Correct:
  5. When a patient is descending stairs, the physical therapist assistant should guard in front of the patient on the involved side. In this case, the patient moves into the assistant's base of support, whereby adequate stability can be maintained.
  6. Standing behind the patient does not provide adequate stability and would be better positioning for a patient ascending stairs. Which of the following instructions would be MOST appropriate to give to the person in the photograph?
  7. Straighten the knees.
  8. Bend the elbows.
  9. Put on a back brace.
  10. Place the feet together.
  11. Keeping the knees straight with the spine in a flexed position when lifting an object places undue stress on the lumbar area. Maintaining flexion of the knees allows the muscles of the lower extremities, not the back, to perform the lift. Correct:
  1. Bending the elbows will keep the object close to the body and decrease the length of the lever arm, allowing muscles to work more efficiently with less strain, lowering torque to the trunk muscles, and allowing the center of gravity to remain within the base of support.
  2. While use of a back brace may be helpful, in this scenario, the patient would benefit most by bending the elbows to bring the object closer to the body, which allows the center of gravity to remain within the base of support.
  3. Moving the subject's feet closer together will decrease the base of support and, therefore, decrease stability. Which of the following characteristics is LEAST likely to be associated with the gait pattern of a patient with Parkinson disease?
  4. Increased arm swing
  5. Forward head
  6. Forward festination
  7. Decreased equilibrium Correct:
  8. Arm swing is decreased in a patient with Parkinson disease.
  9. A forward head is a postural deviation commonly seen with Parkinson disease.
  10. A festinating gait is seen in patients with Parkinson disease. Characteristics of a festinating gait include short steps, increased speed, and propulsion.
  1. The lateral thoracotomy incision is often used to provide access for lobectomy. In this case the patient would need to splint along the lateral chest wall. (Hillegass, p. 365) Which of the following is the MOST appropriate duration for application of ice massage to treat a patient's lateral ankle?
  2. 10-15 minutes
  3. 16-20 minutes
  4. Until the patient reports a numb sensation
  5. Until the patient reports a burning sensation
  6. Treatment time for ice massage is typically 5-10 minutes or until the patient reaches analgesia. Ten to 15 minutes is too long for an intense cold treatment such as ice massage.
  7. Treatment time for ice massage is typically 5-10 minutes or until the patient reaches analgesia. Sixteen to 20 minutes is too long for an intense cold treatment such as ice massage. Correct:
  8. Treatment time for ice massage is typically 5-10 minutes or until the patient reaches analgesia. The patient will experience the following sensations: cold, then burning, then aching, and finally numbness. It takes 5-10 minutes for this to occur.
  9. Treatment time for ice massage is typically 5-10 minutes or until the patient reaches analgesia. The patient will experience the following sensations: cold, then burning, then aching, and finally numbness. Typically the patient feels burning within 1- minutes, and further treatment time is needed to reach numbness.

A patient sustained a burn on the dorsal surface of the hand. Intact blisters and mild weeping are noted. Which of the following descriptions BEST classifies this burn?

  1. Superficial
  2. Superficial partial-thickness
  3. Deep partial-thickness
  4. Full-thickness
  5. A superficial burn causes damage only to the epidermis. The characteristic sign of a superficial burn is erythema and pain. Blistering is not a characteristic of a superficial burn. Correct:
  6. The most common sign of a superficial partial-thickness burn is the presence of intact blisters over the area that has been injured. Other characteristics include a moist surface and weeping from the wound.
  7. A deep partial-thickness burn is characterized by broken blisters, wet surface, and the presence of edema.
  8. Since the full-thickness burn destroys all epidermal and dermal layers, blisters are not present in this type of burn. It is usually characterized by eschar. Which of the following findings regarding waist measurement and blood pressure would be expected in a patient with metabolic syndrome?
  9. Increased waist size and elevated blood pressure
  10. Increased waist size and decreased blood pressure
  1. Intermittent claudication does not occur with postphlebitic syndrome (O'Sullivan, p. 650).
  2. Neurogenic claudication, not intermittent claudication, is associated with spinal stenosis (Goodman, p. 1316). Correct:
  3. Intermittent claudication is a characteristic of arteriosclerosis obliterans (O'Sullivan, pp. 369-640). Which of the following sequences represents the normal progression of motor development in infancy?
  4. Head righting, grasping and transferring objects, pivot prone
  5. Head righting, pivot prone, grasping and transferring objects
  6. Grasping and transferring objects, head righting, pivot prone
  7. Pivot prone, head righting, grasping and transferring objects
  8. This is incorrect because after head righting at 2-3 months, pivot prone is next at 4-6 months, followed by grasping and transferring objects at 5-7 months. Correct:
  9. Head righting occurs first at 2-3 months. Pivot prone occurs at approximately 4-6 months. Grasping objects and transferring from one hand to another occurs approximately at 5-7 months.
  10. This is an incorrect sequence because grasping and transferring objects occurs at 5-7 months. Head righting occurs first at 2- months, followed by pivot prone at 4-6 months.
  11. This is incorrect because head righting occurs first at 2- months, pivot prone occurs next at 4-6 months, and grasping and transferring objects occurs at 5-7 months.

Which of the following test results would MOST likely be seen in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

  1. Increased expiratory flow rate
  2. Increased total lung capacity
  3. Decreased functional residual capacity
  4. Decreased residual volume
  5. On a functional pulmonary test, a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease would exhibit decreased expiratory flow. Correct:
  6. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease would exhibit increased total lung capacity, increased vital capacity, increased residual and functional residual capacity, and decreased expiratory flow rates, secondary to destruction of the alveolar walls.
  7. On a functional pulmonary test, a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease would exhibit an increased functional residual capacity.
  8. On a functional pulmonary test, a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease would exhibit increased residual volume. When performing percussion for clearance of the apical segment of the upper lobes, what is the appropriate location for placement of the hands?
  9. Anterior ribs

of GI bleeding is hematemesis (vomiting of bright red blood). (p. 773.e96)

  1. Common signs of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) are heartburn, dyspepsia, and a burning sensation in the esophagus when acidic contents of the stomach regurgitate into the esophagus. Coffee-ground emesis is not a typical sign of this condition. (p. 773.e99)
  2. Symptoms of a sliding hernia are heartburn after a large meal and reflux (p. 773.e98).
  3. Pernicious anemia is caused by B12 deficiency, which typically causes gastrointestinal symptoms of weakness, fatigue, pallor, and dyspnea on exertion (p. 327). Which of the following factors MOST contributes to the patient's use of the position shown in the photograph forsit-to-stand activities?
  4. Pseudohypertrophy
  5. Proximal weakness
  6. Lordosis
  7. Scoliosis
  8. Although pseudohypertrophy is a sign of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, pseudohypertrophy is not the direct cause of difficulty in sit-to-stand activities. Correct:
  1. The Gower maneuver shown in the photograph is used due to proximal muscle weakness in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
  2. Although lordosis is a sign of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, lordosis is not the direct cause of difficulty in sit-to-stand activities.
  3. Although scoliosis is a sign of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, scoliosis is not the direct cause of difficulty in sit-to-stand activities. A patient has an initial examination score of 3 on the Modified Ashworth Scale for Grading Spasticity. Which of the following descriptions MOST closely represents the patient's level of spasticity?
  4. No increase in muscle tone with no resistance to passive movement
  5. Considerable increase in muscle tone resulting in significant resistance to passive movement
  6. Slight increase in muscle tone with minimal resistance to passive movement
  7. Increased muscle tone with limb moving easily through passive movement
  8. A score of 0 on the Modified Ashworth Scale indicates no increase in muscle tone regardless of the speed of movement. Correct:

fluid depletion and electrolyte imbalance. (Goodman, p. 262; Ciccone, pp. 320-321)

  1. The primary antihypertensive effect of vasodilators is to decrease lower vascular resistance by directly vasodilating peripheral vessels. They do not produce the adverse effects of fluid depletion and electrolyte imbalance. (Goodman, p. 263)
  2. The primary antihypertensive effects of calcium channel blockers are decreased cardiac contraction and relaxation of blood vessels. They do not produce the adverse effects of fluid depletion and electrolyte imbalance. (Goodman, p. 262) Which of the following nerves innervates the muscle reflex being tested in the photograph?
  3. Musculocutaneous
  4. Radial
  5. Axillary
  6. Median Correct:
  7. The photograph depicts the reflex test for the biceps muscle, which is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve (p. 147).
  8. The photograph depicts the reflex test for the biceps muscle, which is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve. The radial nerve innervates the triceps muscle. (p. 147)
  9. The photograph depicts the reflex test for the biceps muscle, which is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve (p. 147). The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscle with nerve roots of C5 and C6 (p. 117). These nerve roots are tested by

either the biceps or the brachioradialis deep tendon reflex (p. 147).

  1. The photograph depicts the reflex test for the biceps muscle, which is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve. The median nerve innervates the pronator muscles of the forearm. (p. 147) A patient with an acquired brain injury is at the confused- inappropriate level of the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale. Which of the following accommodations is MOST appropriate to provide for the patient during physical therapy intervention?
  2. Detailed verbal explanation
  3. Massed practice
  4. A quiet environment without distractions
  5. Variable practice
  6. This patient has limited ability to follow verbal direction. Instructions should be simple and should consist of a single step. (O'Sullivan)
  7. Massed practice is defined as a session in which the amount of practice time in a trial is greater than the amount of rest between trials (Shumway-Cook). This patient has a short attention span, so massed practice will not enhance intervention (O'Sullivan). Correct:
  8. This patient has a short attention span and the inability to make new memories. A quiet environment would be most effective for any therapy intervention. (O'Sullivan)