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Question 1. What is the total passenger seating capacity of the B737‑8200? A) 189 seats B) 191 seats C) 197 seats D) 203 seats Answer: C Explanation: The B737‑8200 is configured for 197 seats, eight more than the B737‑800. Question 2. Which row number is omitted from the cabin layout on both the B737‑800 and B737‑8200? A) 12 B) 13 C) 14 D) 15 Answer: B Explanation: Row 13 is skipped for superstition; numbering jumps from 12 to 14. Question 3. Where is the aft‑facing jumpseat (No. 3) located on the B737‑8200? A) Row 22 B) Row 25 C) Row 27 D) Row 30 Answer: C Explanation: The aft‑facing jumpseat is installed at Row 27 on the 8200 variant. Question 4. Which emergency exit type is unique to the B737‑8200? A) Over‑wing exits at rows 16 ‑ 17 B) Mid‑Exit Doors (MED) at row 28 C) Primary doors L1/L2 D) Service doors R1/R Answer: B Explanation: The 8200 features a Mid‑Exit Door (MED) located at Row 28, not present on the 800. Question 5. On the B737‑800, over‑wing emergency exits are found at which rows? A) 12‑ 13 B) 14‑ 15 C) 16‑ 17 D) 18‑ 19 Answer: C Explanation: The B737‑ 800 ’s over‑wing exits are positioned at rows 16 and 17. Question 6. Which location houses the Halotron 2 BTP extinguisher on the B737‑8200?
A) Forward galley B) Aft cabin bulkhead C) Under the seat 19‑A D) No dedicated location; it is stored with other extinguishers Answer: D Explanation: The Halotron 2 BTP is stored together with other fire extinguishers, not in a unique compartment. Question 7. Where are the primary entry doors on the aircraft? A) L1 and L2 B) R1 and R2 C) L3 and R3 D) L4 and R Answer: A Explanation: Primary passenger doors are designated L1 and L2 on the left side of the fuselage. Question 8. Which oxygen bottle position is forward of the cabin? A) G2 FWD B) G4 AFT C) G6 FWD D) G8 AFT Answer: A Explanation: The forward‑located oxygen bottle is identified as G2 FWD. Question 9. Where is the second oxygen bottle situated? A) G2 FWD B) G4 AFT C) G6 AFT D) G8 FWD Answer: C Explanation: The aft oxygen bottle is mounted at G6 AFT. Question 10. Which piece of safety equipment is stored in the PBE (Protective Breathing Equipment) kit? A) Halon extinguisher B) Fire glove C) Portable oxygen mask D) Life vest Answer: C Explanation: PBE kits contain a portable oxygen mask for smoke‑filled cabin scenarios. Question 11. During a pre‑departure inspection, what indicates a correctly stowed slide pressure gauge?
Explanation: Crew No. 1 is assigned to rows 1‑12, covering Row 10 ‑12. Question 17. What is the correct interphone phrase to alert the flight deck of a cabin secure? A) “Cabin Ready” B) “Cabin Secure” C) “Doors Closed” D) “All Set” Answer: B Explanation: “Cabin Secure” is the standardized interphone call to the flight deck. Question 18. When fueling, which crew position must lock the aircraft toilet? A) No. 1 B) No. 2 C) No. 3 D) No. 4 Answer: D Explanation: Crew No. 4 is tasked with locking the toilet during fueling operations. Question 19. How is the L1 airstair retracted after use? A) Pull lever A B) Push lever B C) Rotate knob C D) Press button D Answer: A Explanation: The L1 airstair is pulled upward using lever A to retract it. Question 20. What command initiates slide arming and cross‑check? A) “Arm Slides” B) “Cross‑Check Slides” C) “Arm and Cross‑Check” D) “Slide Ready” Answer: C Explanation: The combined phrase “Arm and Cross‑Check” is used to arm slides and verify readiness. Question 21. Which fire drill uses a metal‑bar box and non‑flammable liquid? A) Oven fire B) Overhead locker fire C) Lithium‑battery/PED fire D) Seat fire Answer: C Explanation: Lithium‑battery or PED fires require the metal‑bar box and a non‑flammable extinguishing liquid. Question 22. After extinguishing a toilet fire, what is the next required action?
A) Leave the area immediately B) Perform post‑fire monitoring for 10 minutes C) Reset the seatbelt sign D) Close the cabin door Answer: B Explanation: Post‑fire monitoring ensures the fire does not reignite. Question 23. Which command is used to start an evacuation? A) “Open Seatbelts, Leave Everything Behind.” B) “Prepare for Evacuation.” C) “Evacuate Now.” D) “Slide Deploy.” Answer: A Explanation: The standard evacuation command is “Open Seatbelts, Leave Everything Behind.” Question 24. How does an automatically inflating slide differ from a manually inflated slide? A) It uses a hand pump B) It inflates when the door is opened C) It requires a crew member to pull a handle D) It never inflates automatically Answer: B Explanation: Automatic slides deploy and inflate as soon as the exit door is opened. Question 25. In a ditching scenario, what must be done after slide‑raft detachment? A) Throw the raft overboard B) Deploy life jackets and assist passengers onto the raft C) Re‑inflate the slide D) Close all cabin doors Answer: B Explanation: Passengers must be assisted onto the slide‑raft and equipped with life jackets. Question 26. What is the first motion required to open a Mid‑Exit Door (MED)? A) Pull outward B) Push inward and upward C) Slide down D) Rotate clockwise Answer: B Explanation: The MED must be lifted inward and upward before it can be pushed outward. Question 27. Which type of decompression occurs when the cabin pressure drops rapidly within seconds?
Explanation: Galley bar boxes are reserved for service items; carry‑on bags must not be placed there. Question 33. Which rows are considered “Direct Access” exit rows? A) 1‑ 2 B) 8‑ 9 C) 12‑ 13 D) 20‑ 21 Answer: D Explanation: Direct Access rows are located at the front of the emergency exit doors, typically rows 20‑21 on the B737‑800/8200. Question 34. What is the correct timing for the standard safety PA announcement? A) Immediately after doors close B) 30 seconds before take‑off C) At 5 minutes prior to landing D) After reaching cruise altitude Answer: B Explanation: The safety briefing is announced 30 seconds before take‑off. Question 35. Which interphone code signals “Cabin Crew Standby”? A) “No 1 to the Flight Deck” B) “Cabin Ready” C) “Standby” D) “Cabin Crew Standby” Answer: D Explanation: The phrase “Cabin Crew Standby” is the designated code for that status. Question 36. What is the primary difference between the B737‑800 and B737‑8200 over‑wing exits? A) The 8200 has no over‑wing exits B) The 8200’s exits are at rows 18 ‑ 19 C) The 8200 replaces them with a Mid‑Exit Door D) The 800’s exits are larger Answer: C Explanation: The B737‑8200 substitutes the traditional over‑wing exits with a Mid‑Exit Door (MED) at row 28. Question 37. Which crew member is responsible for checking the status of the PBE indicators? A) No. 1 B) No. 2 C) No. 3 D) No. 4 Answer: B
Explanation: Crew No. 2 verifies that PBE indicators show green (ready) rather than pink (need service). Question 38. During a seat‑fire drill, which equipment must be used first? A) Halon extinguisher B) Water glycol extinguisher C) Fire glove D) Oxygen mask Answer: C Explanation: The fire glove protects the crew’s hand while applying the extinguisher to the seat fire. Question 39. Which of the following is NOT a permitted activity for a passenger with a PED during flight? A) Using a tablet in seat‑back pocket B) Charging a phone with an approved adapter C) Operating a laptop in the aisle D) Turning off the device when instructed Answer: C Explanation: PEDs must not be used in the aisle; they must be stowed or used at the seat. Question 40. What is the purpose of the “girt bar” on an evacuation slide? A) To secure the slide to the aircraft door B) To contain cabin pressure C) To lock the slide handle D) To hold the life‑vests Answer: A Explanation: The girt bar engages with the door frame to keep the slide attached during deployment. Question 41. Which row is assigned to crew No. 3 for cabin‑secure responsibilities? A) 1‑ 12 B) 13‑ 24 C) 25‑ 36 D) 37‑ 48 Answer: C Explanation: Crew No. 3 covers rows 25‑36 (including the aft jumpseat area). Question 42. When performing the “Arm and Cross‑Check” command, what must the crew verify after arming? A) That the slide is fully retracted B) That the girt bar is engaged C) That the door handle is vertical D) That the seatbelt sign is on Answer: B
Explanation: The metal‑bar box contains a non‑flammable liquid specifically approved for lithium‑battery fires. Question 48. Which row is designated as an “Exit Row” for the B737‑8200? A) 8 B) 12 C) 20 D) 28 Answer: C Explanation: Row 20 (and 21) serve as the exit rows on the B737‑8200. Question 49. What is the purpose of the protective breathing equipment (PBE) indicator turning pink? A) System is fully functional B) Battery is low C) Equipment requires service D) Oxygen level is high Answer: C Explanation: A pink PBE indicator signals that the equipment needs maintenance or replacement. Question 50. Which crew member is tasked with checking the waste bins in the galley during a PDI? A) No. 1 B) No. 2 C) No. 3 D) No. 4 Answer: D Explanation: Crew No. 4 inspects galley waste bins for cleanliness and proper sealing. Question 51. What is the correct visual cue that an evacuation slide has inflated automatically? A) A blue light on the door B) The slide fully extended and taut C) A humming sound D) A red flag on the slide Answer: B Explanation: An automatically inflated slide will be fully extended, taut, and ready for use. Question 52. Which of the following is a prohibited action during a slide‑deployment drill? A) Standing behind the slide B) Holding the slide handle before it is fully out C) Assisting passengers onto the slide D) Checking the girt bar engagement Answer: B Explanation: Crew must not grip the slide handle until the slide is fully deployed to avoid injury.
Question 53. In the event of a seat‑fire, which tool should be used to protect the crew’s hand? A) Fire glove B) Protective boot C) Heat‑resistant sleeve D) No protection needed Answer: A Explanation: The fire glove shields the hand from heat while applying the extinguisher. Question 54. Which statement correctly describes the function of the “MED” on the B737‑8200? A) It is a standard over‑wing exit B) It opens outward without any lift C) It lifts inward and upward before being pushed out D) It is used only for cargo loading Answer: C Explanation: The Mid‑Exit Door (MED) must be lifted inward and upward prior to outward opening. Question 55. What is the minimum number of crew members required to operate the MED safely? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four Answer: B Explanation: Two crew members are required: one to lift the MED and another to push it outward. Question 56. Which emergency equipment is stored at G2 FWD? A) Halon extinguisher B) Oxygen bottle C) Fire glove D) Life‑vests Answer: B Explanation: The forward oxygen bottle is located at G2 FWD. Question 57. When performing a cabin secure, which item must be verified for each passenger? A) Seat‑belt fastened B) Carry‑on bag under the seat C) PED turned off or stowed D) Headphones removed Answer: C Explanation: Crew must ensure all portable electronic devices are turned off or properly stowed. Question 58. Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the “Slide‑Raft” used during ditching?
A) Halon B) Water glycol C) Halotron 2 D) CO₂ Answer: B Explanation: Toilet fires are class A (paper, fabric) and are best tackled with a water glycol extinguisher. Question 64. Which of the following is the correct sequence for an overhead locker fire? A) Pull fire extinguisher, open locker, apply foam B) Open locker, then pull extinguisher C) Apply fire glove, then use extinguisher D) Close locker, then extinguish Answer: C Explanation: Crew first wears a fire glove, then uses the appropriate extinguisher to suppress the fire. Question 65. What is the designated code for “No 1 to the Flight Deck” on the interphone? A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400 Answer: C Explanation: “No 1 to the Flight Deck” is communicated as code 300 on Ryanair interphone system. Question 66. Which cabin area is prohibited for placing a passenger’s service animal? A) At the foot of the seat B) In the overhead bin C) On the aisle seat D) In the jumpseat Answer: B Explanation: Service animals may not be stored in overhead bins; they must remain on the floor or under the seat. Question 67. What is the primary purpose of the “Arm and Cross‑Check” phrase? A) To start the engine B) To prepare the slide for evacuation C) To lock the cabin doors D) To activate the PA system Answer: B Explanation: The phrase arms the evacuation slide and requires a cross‑check to verify readiness. Question 68. Which emergency equipment is located at G6 AFT? A) Halon extinguisher B) Oxygen bottle C) Fire glove D) Life‑vests Answer: B
Explanation: The aft‑mounted oxygen bottle is positioned at G6 AFT. Question 69. Which of the following statements about the “Rapid Decompression” alarm is true? A) It sounds continuously for 30 seconds B) It is a single short tone C) It is a continuous high‑pitch tone until the cabin pressure stabilises D) It is a voice alert only Answer: C Explanation: The rapid‑decompression alarm is a continuous high‑pitch tone indicating urgent need for oxygen. Question 70. Which crew member is responsible for verifying that all emergency slides are armed before take‑off? A) No. 1 B) No. 2 C) No. 3 D) No. 4 Answer: B Explanation: Crew No. 2 checks slide arming status during pre‑departure. Question 71. What is the correct location for a passenger’s life‑vest under the seat? A) Directly under the passenger’s thigh B) Between the seat cushion and backrest C) In the seat‑back pocket D) No life‑vest is stored under the seat Answer: D Explanation: Ryanair stores life‑vests in the seat‑back pocket, not under the seat. Question 72. Which of the following actions is required when the PBE indicator shows pink? A) Replace the PBE immediately B) Continue flight, no action needed C) Notify maintenance after landing D) Turn off the indicator switch Answer: C Explanation: A pink indicator signals the PBE needs service; maintenance must be notified after landing. Question 73. During a fuel‑offload, which door must remain closed? A) L1 B) L2 C) R1 D) All doors remain closed Answer: D
Question 79. Which piece of equipment is stored in the cabin area designated G2 FWD? A) Halon extinguisher B) Oxygen bottle C) Fire glove D) Protective breathing equipment Answer: B Explanation: The forward oxygen bottle is located at G2 FWD. Question 80. During a “Seat‑belt sign off” announcement, what must the crew also do? A) Turn on the cabin lights B) Check the seat‑belt signs are actually off C) Close the overhead bins D) Activate the PA system for music Answer: B Explanation: Crew must verify that the seat‑belt sign indicator is deactivated after announcing. Question 81. Which of the following is a required step before the aircraft can depart after fueling? A) Open all cabin doors B) Verify the toilet is locked C) Turn off all cabin lights D) Disarm the slides Answer: B Explanation: The toilet must be locked to prevent accidental opening during fueling. Question 82. Which crew member is primarily responsible for checking the waste‑bin condition in the forward galley? A) No. 1 B) No. 2 C) No. 3 D) No. 4 Answer: A Explanation: Crew No. 1 inspects the forward galley, including waste bins. Question 83. In a slow decompression scenario, what is the crew’s primary action? A) Deploy slides immediately B) Continue normal service, monitor cabin altitude C) Open all doors D) Shut down the engines Answer: B Explanation: Slow decompression allows time to monitor cabin altitude and follow standard procedures without immediate evacuation.
Question 84. Which type of fire extinguisher is found on the B737‑800 for a kitchen‑type fire? A) Halon B) Water glycol C) Halotron 2 D) CO₂ Answer: B Explanation: Water glycol extinguishers are used for kitchen fires such as oven or galley fires. Question 85. What is the correct location of the fire‑glove for the B737‑8200? A) Forward galley B) Near the aft exit door C) Beside the oxygen bottles D) In the cabin crew jumpseat area Answer: B Explanation: The fire glove is stored near the aft exit doors for quick access during emergencies. Question 86. Which of the following best describes the “MED” operation sequence? A) Push outward, then lift B) Lift inward and upward, then push outward C) Slide down, then open D) Rotate clockwise, then pull Answer: B Explanation: The MED must be lifted inward and upward before being pushed outward. Question 87. What is the correct response when a passenger’s service dog is found in an overhead bin? A) Remove the dog immediately B) Instruct the passenger to place the dog on the floor C) Allow the dog to stay in the bin D) Report to the pilot and continue flight Answer: B Explanation: Service animals must remain on the floor; they cannot be stored in bins. Question 88. Which crew member checks the “Pressure gauges on slides” during a PDI? A) No. 1 B) No. 2 C) No. 3 D) No. 4 Answer: B Explanation: Crew No. 2 verifies slide pressure gauges as part of equipment checks. Question 89. During an evacuation, what is the correct posture for crew members on the slide?
A) It deploys automatically for all passengers B) It must be manually activated by the crew C) It provides oxygen for 5 minutes D) It is only for crew use Answer: A Explanation: At 14 000 ft cabin altitude, the emergency oxygen system automatically supplies oxygen to passengers and crew. Question 95. Which crew member is responsible for checking the “Slide‑Arm Girt Bar” after arming? A) No. 1 B) No. 2 C) No. 3 D) No. 4 Answer: B Explanation: Crew No. 2 performs the cross‑check of the girt bar after slide arming. Question 96. What is the correct action if a passenger’s PED is observed to be in use during take‑off? A) Ignore it B) Request the passenger to turn it off immediately C) Confiscate the device D) Report to the pilot only Answer: B Explanation: Crew must ask the passenger to turn off the PED as per safety regulations. Question 97. Which of the following is the correct sequence for a “Toilet Fire” drill? A) Pull fire extinguisher, apply to fire, then close the door B) Close the toilet door, then pull extinguisher, apply C) Use fire glove, pull water glycol extinguisher, apply D) Open the toilet door, then use CO₂ extinguisher Answer: C Explanation: The crew first dons a fire glove, then uses the water glycol extinguisher on the fire. Question 98. Which row is typically assigned to crew No. 4 for cabin‑secure duties? A) 1‑ 12 B) 13‑ 24 C) 25‑ 36 D) 37‑ 48 Answer: D Explanation: Crew No. 4 monitors the rear of the cabin, rows 37‑48.
Question 99. What is the primary purpose of the “Service doors (R1, R2)”? A) Passenger boarding B) Crew access to galley and cargo C) Emergency evacuation D) Fuel loading Answer: B Explanation: Service doors provide crew access to the galley, cargo, and equipment areas. Question 100. Which of the following is the correct method to verify the “Overwing Exit” is clear during a PDI? A) Open the exit door fully B) Visually inspect the area for obstructions C) Pull the handle to test the mechanism D) Both B and C Answer: D Explanation: Visual inspection combined with a handle pull ensures the exit is unobstructed and functional. Question 101. Which fire extinguisher type is stored in the aft galley of the B737‑8200? A) Halon B) Water glycol C) Halotron 2 D) CO₂ Answer: C Explanation: The B737‑8200 carries a Halotron 2 extinguisher in the aft galley for class B fires. Question 102. What is the correct location for a passenger’s life‑vest on the B737‑800? A) Under the seat B) In the seat‑back pocket C) In the overhead bin D) In the galley Answer: B Explanation: Life‑vests are stored in the seat‑back pocket for each passenger. Question 103. Which of the following describes the correct “Slide‑Raft” deployment after a water landing? A) Pull the manual handle to inflate the raft B) The raft inflates automatically when the slide is deployed C) The crew must manually attach the raft D) The raft is not used on the B737‑800/ Answer: B Explanation: The slide‑raft system inflates automatically once the slide is deployed.
