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Question 1. What is the standard passenger seat capacity of a Ryanair‑converted Boeing 737 ‑800? A) 176 B) 189 C) 197 D) 210 Answer: B Explanation: The Ryanair‑specific 737‑800 (often referred to as the 800 series) is configured with 189 seats, maximizing revenue while meeting weight‑and‑balance limits. Question 2. How many seats are installed on the Ryanair‑converted Boeing 737 ‑8200? A) 189 B) 191 C) 195 D) 197 Answer: D Explanation: The 737‑8200, a higher‑density variant, carries 197 seats, adding extra rows in the cabin compared with the 800 series. Question 3. How many main exits are located on each side of the 737‑800 series? A) Two left, two right B) One left, three right C) Three left, one right D) Four left, zero right Answer: A Explanation: The 800 series has four main exits: L1 and L2 on the left side, R1 and R2 on the right side, providing balanced evacuation capability. Question 4. What additional exit feature is present on the 737‑8200 that is not on the 800 series? A) Over‑wing exit slides
B) Mid‑Exit Doors (MED) C) Extra service doors D) Dual‑door emergency slides Answer: B Explanation: The 8200 incorporates two Mid‑Exit Doors (MED) positioned between the main doors to improve evacuation flow. Question 5. Which door on the aircraft is designated as a Service Door (R‑side) for cargo and equipment loading? A) L B) L C) R D) R Answer: C Explanation: R1 is the right‑hand Service Door used for loading baggage, cargo, and equipment; it is not an emergency exit for passengers. Question 6. Which door is used as the primary Entry Door for boarding passengers on the left side? A) L B) L C) R D) R Answer: A Explanation: L1 serves as the main Entry Door for boarding; it is equipped with a slide that inflates automatically when required. Question 7. When a main door is opened, which safety device automatically engages to prevent wind‑blast opening? A) Slide‑inflation valve B) Gust lock
Explanation: The escape rope provides a means for passengers to exit the aircraft manually if the slide does not inflate. Question 11. Which type of fire extinguisher is primarily used for electrical fires on board? A) Water glycol extinguisher B) Halon extinguisher C) CO₂ extinguisher D) Foam extinguisher Answer: B Explanation: Halon extinguishers are effective on electrical fires because they interrupt the chemical reaction without leaving residue. Question 12. How long can a Halon fire extinguisher discharge continuously? A) 5 seconds B) 10 seconds C) 15 seconds D) 30 seconds Answer: B Explanation: The standard Halon extinguisher on Ryanair aircraft provides a 10‑second discharge, sufficient for most cabin‑area electrical fires. Question 13. What is the correct duration of use for a water‑glycol fire extinguisher? A) 5 seconds B) 8 seconds C) 12 seconds D) 20 seconds Answer: C Explanation: Water‑glycol extinguishers discharge for approximately 12 seconds, delivering a cooling agent for Class A fires.
Question 14. During the PDI, how is the readiness of a fire extinguisher verified? A) By checking the pressure gauge needle position. B) By shaking the extinguisher. C) By pulling the safety pin. D) By looking for a green indicator tag. Answer: A Explanation: The pressure gauge must be within the green zone, indicating sufficient pressure for discharge. Question 15. How many minutes of breathable air does a Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) mask provide? A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 20 minutes Answer: C Explanation: Each PBE mask supplies approximately 15 minutes of oxygen, allowing the crew to don masks and evacuate safely. Question 16. Which color indicator on a PBE shows that the mask is fully charged and ready for use? A) Red B) Yellow C) Green D) Blue Answer: C Explanation: A green indicator on the PBE cylinder signals that the mask is fully charged and ready. Question 17. What is the correct order for donning a PBE mask? A) Pull the strap, place the mask over the nose, tighten the strap.
Answer: A Explanation: Loudhailers are a backup communication device used when the primary public address (PA) system is inoperative or when enhanced volume is needed. Question 21. What is the maximum continuous operating time for a torch carried on board? A) 10 minutes B) 20 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 45 minutes Answer: C Explanation: The torch’s battery is rated for a maximum of 30 minutes of continuous use; prolonged use beyond this risks depletion. Question 22. During the torch PDI, what visual cue indicates a functional torch? A) Continuous green light B) Red flashing at one‑second intervals C) Intermittent amber light every 5 seconds D) No light, only audible beep Answer: B Explanation: A functional torch flashes red at regular intervals (approximately one second) to confirm the battery is operational. Question 23. Which system provides emergency illumination when the main electrical supply fails? A) Cabin Lights (CL) B) Emergency Lighting System (ELS) C) Strobe Lights (SL) D) Position Lights (PL) Answer: B Explanation: The ELS automatically or manually activates to illuminate exit signs and pathways during a loss of normal power.
Question 24. What does PEM stand for in the context of cabin safety? A) Primary Emergency Marking B) Photoluminescent Emergency Marking C) Passenger Exit Map D) Portable Emergency Module Answer: B Explanation: PEM refers to photoluminescent strips that glow in low‑light conditions, aiding passenger orientation during evacuations. Question 25. How many oxygen masks are provided per row in the Passenger Service Unit (PSU)? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: C Explanation: Each PSU supplies four individual oxygen masks, sufficient for the two seats on either side of the aisle. Question 26. Where are the drop‑down oxygen masks for the galley located? A) Inside the forward galley cabinet. B) Above the galley sink. C) In the ceiling panel above the galley. D) Under the galley countertop. Answer: C Explanation: The galley oxygen masks are stored in a ceiling panel above the galley to keep them accessible yet out of the way of routine operations. Question 27. What flow rate does a portable oxygen bottle provide for a passenger in a rapid decompression?
D) “All passengers, stay seated!” Answer: B Explanation: The crew’s first verbal command after a decompression is “Don oxygen now!” to ensure passengers use the masks promptly. Question 31. At 40 000 ft, approximately how many seconds of Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC) does a crew member have without supplemental oxygen? A) 5–10 seconds B) 15–20 seconds C) 30–40 seconds D) 60–90 seconds Answer: B Explanation: At 40 000 ft, the TUC is roughly 15–20 seconds, after which loss of consciousness occurs if oxygen is not supplied. Question 32. Which symptom indicates mild hypoxia? A) Loss of peripheral vision B) Euphoria and impaired judgment C) Complete unconsciousness D) Seizures Answer: B Explanation: Mild hypoxia often presents as euphoria, a sense of well‑being, and poor decision‑making, making it dangerous because it may be unnoticed. Question 33. What does the SOS evacuation acronym stand for? A) Secure, Organize, Save B) Survive impact, Get out, Survive outside C) Stop, Open, Slide D) Safety, Order, Speed Answer: B
Explanation: SOS reminds crew to first survive the impact, then evacuate the aircraft, and finally survive outside the aircraft. Question 34. Who has the authority to initiate the cabin evacuation when the flight deck is incapacitated? A) The senior flight attendant (No 1) B) The purser (No 2) C) The first available cabin crew member D) The lead passenger volunteer Answer: C Explanation: If the flight deck cannot command, the first cabin crew member who recognizes the need may initiate the evacuation. Question 35. During a ditching evacuation, which crew member is primarily responsible for opening the left over‑wing exit? A) No 1 B) No 2 C) No 3 D) No 4 Answer: C Explanation: In Ryanair SOPs, No 3 is assigned to the left over‑wing exit during ditching scenarios. Question 36. Which ABP (Able‑Bodied Passenger) brief is given to the passenger seated in row 10, seat A? A) Left over‑wing exit briefing B) Right over‑wing exit briefing C) Mid‑exit door briefing D) No briefing – only crew brief passengers in rows 1‑ 5 Answer: A Explanation: Passengers in the forward cabin (rows 1‑15) are briefed on the nearest exit; row 10 A is closest to the left over‑wing exit.
B) Direct passengers to the nearest exit. C) Relay information to the flight deck and other crew members. D) Carry the emergency torch. Answer: C Explanation: The Communicator maintains situational awareness by informing the flight deck and other crew of the fire’s status and actions taken. Question 41. During a pre‑flight 20‑minute flight‑deck check, which interphone channel is used for cabin crew communication? A) Interphone 10 B) Interphone 22 C) Interphone 30 D) Interphone 45 Answer: B Explanation: Interphone 22 is the dedicated cabin‑crew channel for routine checks and coordination before departure. Question 42. What is the purpose of the 30‑second mental review performed by cabin crew before take‑off? A) To rehearse the boarding procedure. B) To memorize passenger names. C) To mentally rehearse emergency procedures. D) To calculate fuel consumption. Answer: C Explanation: The 30‑second review reinforces crew memory of emergency actions, ensuring rapid response if an incident occurs. Question 43. When passengers are on board during fueling, where must cabin crew be positioned? A) In the galley, preparing meals. B) At the forward cabin door, monitoring the aisle.
C) In the rear cabin, near the exit doors. D) Standing in the aisle, facing the fuel trucks. Answer: B Explanation: Crew must be at the forward cabin door to monitor the aisle and ensure safety while fuel trucks operate. Question 44. Which of the following is prohibited from being carried in the cabin during fueling? A) Portable oxygen bottles B) Empty water bottles C) Personal electronic devices D) Disposable cigarettes Answer: D Explanation: Smoking devices, including cigarettes, are strictly prohibited during fueling due to fire‑risk. Question 45. How is the airstair extended for use on the ground? A) Pull the airstair lever, then push the stair down. B) Rotate the airstair handle clockwise until locked. C) Release the airstair latch, then lower the stairs manually. D) Press the “Airstair Deploy” button on the overhead panel. Answer: C Explanation: The airstair latch must be released, after which the stairs are lowered manually to the ground. Question 46. Which safety feature must be engaged when the airstair is retracted? A) Slide‑lock mechanism B) Handrail lock C) Emergency slide brace D) Gust lock Answer: B
Question 50. What does THOB represent in the context of a Ryanair flight? A) Total Hours of Boarding B) Total Heads on Board C) Technical Hazard Observation Board D) Time‑Held Operational Briefing Answer: B Explanation: THOB stands for Total Heads on Board, indicating the exact number of passengers and crew on the aircraft. Question 51. In the event of pilot incapacitation, which lever must be moved to secure the incapacitated pilot’s seat? A) Y‑lever B) H‑lever (seat height) C) Z‑lever (rudder trim) D) G‑lever (landing gear) Answer: B Explanation: The H‑lever adjusts seat height; moving it forward secures the pilot and prevents unintended movement during emergency handling. Question 52. After securing the incapacitated pilot, which device prevents the pilot’s seat from moving unintentionally? A) Inertia reel lock B) Seatbelt tensioner C) Quick‑release latch D) Flight‑deck lockout pin Answer: A Explanation: The inertia reel lock engages to lock the seat’s movement, ensuring the pilot remains stationary.
Question 53. If the flight‑deck captain is incapacitated, which crew member assumes command of the aircraft? A) First Officer (No 2) B) Senior Cabin Crew (No 1) C) Purser (No 3) D) Lead Passenger (ABP) Answer: A Explanation: The first officer is the designated second‑in‑command and takes over control if the captain cannot fly. Question 54. In a scenario where the First Officer (No 2) is incapacitated, which crew member steps into the pilot’s seat? A) No 1 (Senior Cabin Crew) B) No 3 (Cabin Crew) C) No 4 (Cabin Crew) D) The flight‑deck captain remains in control, no seat change needed. Answer: D Explanation: The captain remains the pilot; No 2’s duties are covered by the captain, while cabin crew continue their roles. Question 55. Which acronym defines the quick reference material used by cabin crew for emergency actions? A) SOP B) QRG C) PDI D) PRAM Answer: B Explanation: QRG stands for Quick Reference Guide, a concise manual that outlines emergency procedures for rapid access. Question 56. What is the primary function of the PRAM on Ryanair aircraft?
B) Four C) Six D) Eight Answer: B Explanation: The aircraft carries four portable oxygen bottles for crew, providing redundancy in case of system failure. Question 60. Which of the following is NOT a standard part of the cabin crew’s “30‑second review”? A) Recalling the location of fire extinguishers. B) Visualizing the cabin layout. C) Reviewing the flight plan route. D) Mentally rehearsing the evacuation sequence. Answer: C Explanation: The flight plan route is a flight‑deck responsibility; the cabin crew focus on cabin‑related emergency actions. Question 61. Which component of the oxygen system is activated manually by an ID card swipe? A) Passenger masks in the PSU. B) Portable oxygen bottles. C) Flight‑deck oxygen supply. D) Galley drop‑down masks. Answer: C Explanation: The flight‑deck oxygen system can be manually activated by swiping the crew ID card, initiating oxygen flow to the cockpit. Question 62. What is the correct procedure if a passenger refuses to don a mask during a rapid decompression? A) Ignore the passenger and continue the flight. B) Use physical force to put the mask on.
C) Instruct the nearest crew member to assist and, if necessary, remove the passenger from the seat. D) Wait until the aircraft descends to a safe altitude. Answer: C Explanation: Crew must assist the passenger, ensuring the mask is properly placed; if the passenger remains non‑compliant, they may need to be moved for safety. Question 63. Which of the following best describes the “shout” command used when an oxygen mask deployment occurs? A) “All passengers, brace for impact!” B) “Don oxygen now!” C) “Prepare for evacuation!” D) “Secure seat belts!” Answer: B Explanation: The immediate command after mask deployment is “Don oxygen now!” to ensure rapid mask usage. Question 64. What is the primary visual indication that a PBE mask is ready for use? A) A red flashing light on the cylinder. B) A green indicator on the mask. C) A blue tag attached to the mask. D) A white label on the cylinder. Answer: B Explanation: The green indicator on the PBE mask confirms that it is fully charged and ready. Question 65. Which emergency equipment is stored in the forward cabin crew locker and is used to cut through a jammed door? A) Crash axe B) Fire axe C) Emergency saw D) Rescue hammer
