SBB ASCP Practice Test | Actual Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2024/2025 (Graded A+), Exams of Nursing

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SBB ASCP Practice Test | Actual Questions and Answers Latest Updated

2024/2025 (Graded A+)

A donor experiences perioral paresthesia during an apheresis procedure. Which of the following should be performed? a. Increase the flow rate. b. Reduce the flow rate. c. Elevate the donor's feet. d. Have the donor breathe into a paper bag. - ✔✔b. Reduce the flow rate. A unit of autologous blood tested repeatedly reactive for HBsAg. The patient is scheduled for surgery in three days. What action should be taken? a. Discard the unit. b. Send the unit with a biohazard label and "autologous use only." c. Obtain a written request from the patient's physician and send the unit with a biohazard label and "autologous use only." d. Wait for confirmatory testing before contacting physician to see what he wants to do. - ✔✔c. Obtain a written request from the patient's physician and send the unit with a biohazard label and "autologous use only." Which of the following individuals can be accepted for allogeneic blood donation? a. Male, age 72, Hb 13.5, BP 124/8 8 b. Female, age 22, Hb 14.0, spontaneous abortion 5 weeks ago C. Female, age 37, Hb 12.2, BP 160/ d. Male, age 61, Hb 12, cardiac bypass surgery 4 years ago e. Female, age 61, Hb 13.5, breast cancer 5 years ago - ✔✔a. Male, age 72, Hb 13.5, BP 124/ A 64-year-old male prospective donor states that he had a positive TB skin test one year ago. When further questioned, he states that the x-ray was done and was negative with no other abnormal findings. You should: a. Accept the donor.

b. Defer the donor for 6 months. c. Defer the donor for 1 year. d. Defer the donor indefinitely. - ✔✔a. Accept the donor. A 27-year old truck driver has just finished donating blood and complained of tingling in his fingers and toes, and his fingers are in a strange rigid position. What should be done? a. Give the donor a beverage and cookies. b. Have the donor breathe into a paper bag. c. Ask the donor to lie down and elevate his feet. d. Administer oxygen immediately. - ✔✔b. Have the donor breathe into a paper bag. When preparing cryoprecipitate from plasma, the cryoprecipitate must be placed in the freezer within ___ after removal from the refrigerated centrifuge. a. 15 minutes b. 1 hour c. 6 hours d. 24 hours - ✔✔b. 1 hour FFP thawed but not used can be relabeled to: a. Liquid plasma b. Thawed plasma c. Recovered plasma d. Source plasma - ✔✔b. Thawed plasma Donated blood may NOT be used for allogeneic transfusion when HCV testing shows: a. EIA initial testing reactive b. EIA initial testing reactive and RNA testing nonreactive c. EIA initial testing reactive, and one of the duplicate repeat results is reactive

d. EIA initial tesling is reactive, and both of the duplicate repeat results are nonreactive - ✔✔c. EIA initial testing reactive, and one of the duplicate repeat results is reactive With nucleic acid testing, the window period of HIV is approximately how many days? a. 5 b. 9 C. 16 d. 22 - ✔✔b. 9 The following hepatitis B testing results indicates: HBsAG=Non-reactive, Anti-HBc=Reactive, Anti-HBs=Reactive, HBV DNA=Non-reactive a. Acute infection b. Chronic infection c. Infection is clear d. Recurring infection e. The person has received hepatitis B vaccination - ✔✔c. Infection is clear The following hepatitis C testing results indicates: HCV RNA=Reactive, Anti-HCV (IgM)=Nonreactive, Anti-HCV (lgG)=Reactive a. Acute infection b. Chronic infection c. Infection resolved d. Recurring infection - ✔✔b. Chronic infection A family study consists of 4 daughters, 4 sons, and 12 grandchildren. One son and one daughter have an inherited genetic disorder that is not present in any of the grandchildren. This is an example of: a. Sex-linked dominant inheritance b. Autosomal recessive inheritance

c. Autosomal dominant inheritance d. Non-paternity - ✔✔b. Autosomal recessive inheritance A disease is linked to the ABO system. The pedigree demonstrates: a. Parental haplotye b. Linkage disequilibrium c. Crossing over d. Nondisjunction - ✔✔c. Crossing over A trait carried on the Y chromosome will be passed from: a. Fathers to 50% of sons or daughters b. Fathers to 100% of sons and 50% of daughters c. Fathers to 100% of sons and no daughters d. Fathers to 100% of daughters and no sons - ✔✔c. Fathers to 100% of sons and no daughters A man who is genotype AO married a genotype OO woman. What is the probability that their first child will be type A? a. 12.5% b. 25% C. 50% d. 75% - ✔✔C. 50% Which of the following represent the biochemical structure of the H antigen on red cells? a. Cer-Glu-Gal-GlcNac-GalNac b. Cer-Glu-Gal-GlcNac-Gal-Fuc c. Cer-Glu-Gal-GlcNac-Glu-Fuc d. Cer-Glu-Gal-GlcNac-Gal-Glu - ✔✔b. Cer-Glu-Gal-GlcNac-Gal-Fuc

A man phenotypes A2, Le(a+b-). His saliva shows only Lea. Which of the following best represents his genotype? a. A2O, HH, Lele, Sese b. A2A2, Hh, lele, sese c. A2O, HH, Lele, sese d. A2O, Hh, lele, Sese - ✔✔c. A2O, HH, Lele, sese The following Rh phenotyping results are obtained. What is the most likely genotype? D=0, C=+, E=+, c=+, e=+, f= a. rr b. r'r c. r''r d. r'r" - ✔✔d. r'r" An Rh-negative woman has requested prediction of the Rh genotype of her offspring. Phenotyping results of her family shows the following results. What is the husband's most likely Rh genotype? Woman=dce, Her husband=DCce, Husband's mother= dCce, Husband's brother=Dce a. R1 r' b. r'r' c. R1 r d. R0r' - ✔✔d. R0r' The amino acid sequence responsible for the M antigen is: a. Leu-Ser-Thr-Thr-Glu b. Ser-Ser-Thr-Thr-Gly c. Leu-Ser-Ser-Thr-Glu d. Thr-Ser-Thr-Leu-Gly - ✔✔b. Ser-Ser-Thr-Thr-Gly The antigen that occurs in approximately 20% of individuals of African ethnicity is:

a. K b. Kpa C. Kpb d. Jsa - ✔✔d. Jsa Refer to the family study. The propositus' genotype is most likely: a. JkaJkb b. JkaJka c. JkbJk d. Jk3Jk e. JkbJkb - ✔✔c. JkbJk Finding compatible RBCs would be most difficult for patients with antibody to: a. Vel b. D, C, E, K c. C, Fya d. Wra, Hta - ✔✔a. Vel The Diego blood group is of anthropological interest because: a. Dia is a common antigen in the Caucasian population. b. ma is found in few African Americans. c. Dia is more frequent in individuals of Mongolian ancestry. d. Di(a-b-) individuals are usually Hispanic. - ✔✔c. Dia is more frequent in individuals of Mongolian ancestry. The most common CH/RG phenotype is: a. CH/RG:1,2,-3, 11,- 12 b. CH/RG:1,2,3, 11, 12 c. CH/RG:1,-2,3,11,

d. CH/RG:1,2,-3,11,12 - ✔✔b. CH/RG:1,2,3, 11, 12 Which antigen is located on the CR1 protein? a. Cra b. Kpc c. McCc d. Erc - ✔✔C. McCc The following family study illustrates which type of Lutheran Null inheritance? a. X-linked dominant inhibitor b. Autosomal dominant inhibitor, ln(Lu) c. Recessive gene at the Lutheran locus d. X-linked recessive - ✔✔b. Autosomal dominant inhibitor, ln(Lu) HLA-A 1 and HLA-88 are found more frequently than expected. This is known as:: a. Genetic drift b. Recombination c. Non-disjunction d. Linkage disequilibrium - ✔✔d. Linkage disequilibrium Refer to the HLA testing results below. A2, B12, C22, DR5 is best referred to as: Father A1,A9,B5,B8,Cw2,Cw7,DR3,DR Mother A2, A3, B7, B12 Cw2, Cw7, DR2 DRS Child 1 A1, A3 B7 B8,C w7,D R2,D R Child 2 A3, A9, B5, B7, Cw2, Cw7, DR2, DR Child 3 A1, A2, B8, 812, Cw2, Cw7, DR3, DR Child 4 A2,A9, B5,812,Cw2,DR5,DR Child 5 A2,A9,B5,812,Cw2,DR5,DR

Child 6 A2 , A9, B5, B12, Cw2, DR3, DR Child 7 A2, A11,8 12,817,C w2,C w3,D R1. DR a. Paternal phenotype b. Maternal locus c. Maternal haplotype d. Maternal allele - ✔✔c. Maternal haplotype Referring to the testing results of the question above, which child represents a recombinant? a. Child 2 b. Child 4 c. Child 5 d. Child 6 - ✔✔d. Child 6 - Cross-over paternal gene at Cw&DR You are investigating the relationship between an HLA antigen, A48, with a newly diagnosed skin disorder. Your have the following results. What is the relative risk that the person with HLA-A48 will also develop the skin disorder? HLA-A48 positive with skin disorder HLA-A48 neaative with skin disorder HLA-A48 positive without skin disorder HLA-A48 neaative without skin disorder a. 1. b. 2. C. 7. d. 16.6 - ✔✔d. 16.6 - ad/bc=(177)(220)/(34)(69)=16. What conclusion can be drawn from these testing results? Alleged father = A, MN, DCcEe Mother = O, N, dCce Child 1 = A2, N, DCce

Child 2 = A1, MN, dee a. Paternity is excluded for Child 1 b. Paternity is excluded for Child 2 c. Maternity is excluded for Child 1 d. Paternity is possible for either Child 1 or Child 2 but not both. - ✔✔d. Paternity is possible for either Child 1 or Child 2 but not both. (If father of C1:R1R2, C2:Rzr) Which is an example of a direct exclusion? Child: A, Fy(a+b+), M, R1R Mom: O, Fy(a+b-), M, R1R Alleged Father: AB, Fy(a+b-), MN, R1R a. A O AB b. Fy(a+b+) Fy(a+b-) Fy(a+b-) c. M M MN d. R1R1 R1R1 R1R2 - ✔✔b. Fy(a+b+) Fy(a+b-) Fy(a+b-) Which of the following is true regarding B lymphocytes? a. From rosettes with sheep erythrocytes b. Mature into plasma cells c. Provide cellular immunity d. Carry HLA-A and HLA-8 antigens - ✔✔b. Mature into plasma cells MHC Class II are found on: a. Aortic endothelial cells b. Platelets c. Dendritic cells d. Red cells - ✔✔c. Dendritic cells

The cell that regulates whether or not the immune response will occur is: a. B cells b. Dendritic cells c. Kupffer cells d. T cells - ✔✔d. T cells Class switching of activated B cells involves the conversion of: a. lgM to lgG b. lgG to lgM c. lgE to lgA d. lgA to lgG - ✔✔a. lgM to lgG T helper cells are: a. CD4+ b. CD8+ C. CD44+ d. CD55+ - ✔✔a. CD4+ CR1 receptors on macrophages recognize: a. C3b b. C3c c. C4c d. C4d - ✔✔a. C3b The lgG subclasses that are most efficient in activating complement are: a. lgG 1 , lgG b. lgG1, lgG c. lgG2, lgG

d. lgG2, lgG4 - ✔✔b. lgG1, lgG The Fc receptor on phagocytes that has the highest affinity for binding lgG is: a. FcR b. FCR2a c. FCR2b d. FCR e. FcR4 - ✔✔a. FcR The following QC testing results were obtained for ten apheresis platelets. According to the AABB Standards, the interpretation is: 3.15 X 10^ 5.56 X 10^ 2.89 X 10^ 3.74 X 10^ 3.15 X 10^ 5.51 X 10^ 4.89 X 10^ 4.24 X 10^ 5.89 X 10^ 3.88 X 10^ a. Unacceptable, 50% of the results are too low b. Unacceptable, 100% of the results are too low. c. Acceptable, 90% of the results meets standards d. Acceptable, 100% of the results meets standards - ✔✔c. Acceptable, 90% of the results meets standards Hospital blood banks that collect blood but do not ship across state lines must be: a. Licensed by the FDA

b. Register with the FDA c. Accredited by the AABB d. Inspected by CAP and JCAHO - ✔✔b. Register with the FDA Which of the following is not allowed by law on employment application forms? a. Previous employer b. Educational background c. Address d. Date of birth - ✔✔d. Date of birth The best education objective for a course to teach simple repair of instruments is: a. Explain 9 of 1 0 machine malfunctions. b. Repair 9 of 10 machine malfunctions. c. Recognize 9 of 10 machine malfunctions. d. Answer 9 of 1 0 questions on machine malfunctions. - ✔✔b. Repair 9 of 10 machine malfunctions. You are the supervisor in a transfusion service. One of your employees had just finished compatibility testing and was preparing to take a break. This employee removes his gloves and lab coat and exit the lab on his way to the cafeteria. The employee never washed his hands before leaving the lab or after removing his gloves. You should: a. Counsel the employee when he returns from break. b. Immediately find the employee and remind him to wash his hands. c. Prepare a written documentation of the event to be given to the employee when he returns. d. Plan an in-service for all employees concerning proper procedure for Universal Precautions. - ✔✔d. Plan an in-service for all employees concerning proper procedure for Universal Precautions. Listed below are two bids with the cost of installation, equipment, and reagent for one year. How long (after the initial one year) would it take for Company A and Company B to be equal in overall cost? Company A($) Install 275, Equipment 6500, Reagent 1600 Company B ($) Install 1300, Equipment 7000, Reagent 1000

a. 6 months b. 1.5 years c. 5 years d. Never - ✔✔b. 1.5 years An employee who has been employed for the last 4 years failed a proficiency survey. This employee has received favorable performance appraisal and passed the two previous proficiency surveys, as well as achieving 100% on all competency assessments. As the supervisor, you should: a. Document the non-compliance with the QA department. b. Counsel the employee and then document the counseling with the QA department. c. Determine the cause of error, retrain or counsel depending on the cause and document. d. Suspend the employee until proper retraining can be conducted. - ✔✔c. Determine the cause of error, retrain or counsel depending on the cause and document. Autologous blood is to be collected from a 75-lb individual into a 500-ml blood collection bag. Approximately How much whole blood should be collected? a. 333 b. 357 C. 404 d. 449 - ✔✔b. 357 (75/2.2= 34kgx10.5mL/kg= 357) You have 22 random units of Red Blood Cells on the shelf. For which of the following patients could you find 3 compatible units? a. 0 positive with anti-f b. A positive with anti-Jka c. B negative with anti-D d. 0 positive with anti-Fya - ✔✔d. 0 positive with anti-Fya (.45x.85x.34= 3/X; X=23 units)

If a dose of RhlG is given at 28 weeks resulted in a circulating anti-D titer of 16, about how many more weeks will it take for the titer to reach 4? a. 2 b. 4 C. 7 d. 12 - ✔✔C. 7 (16=0; 8=23; 4=46; days= 6.7 weeks) The gene frequency of a new antigen BBa is 0.8. How many individuals would be expected to be BBa BBb? a. 32% b. 40% c. 64% d. 80% - ✔✔a. 32% [2(.8)(.2)= 32] Given the following information, determine the number of FTEs required for the workload. Vacation/year = 2 weeks Average sick days/year = 5 days Holidays/year = 6 days Continuing education = 4 days Productivity = 75% (45 min/hr) Annual workload = 400,000 units a. 3 b. 5 C. 7 d. 9 - ✔✔b. 5 (400,000/84,600= 4.7)

A Whole Blood unit contains 475 ml with a hct of 42%. How much plasma should be removed to prepare a unit of RBCs with a hct of 75%? a. 199 ml b. 209 ml c. 226 ml d. 266 ml - ✔✔b. 209 ml (475-[(475)(.42)=x(.75)]= 209 A peripheral smear with increased polychromasia, schistocytes, and spherocytes is indicative of: a. Aplastic anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Megaloblastic anemia - ✔✔c. Hemolytic anemia Lower levels of 2,3-DPG in the red cells result in: a. Increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, more oxygen is released to the tissues. b. Decreased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, less oxygen is released to the tissues. c. Increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, less oxygen is released to the tissues. d. No change in the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen unless the temperature also changes. - ✔✔c. Increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, less oxygen is released to the The disease most often associated with rouleaux formation is: a. Multiple myeloma b. cryoglobulinemia c. Hypogammaglobulinemia d. Hyperviscosity syndrome - ✔✔a. Multiple myeloma The peripheral smear from an obstetrical patient of African ethnicity shows marked target cells and large oblong crystalloid structures within some of the red cells. The patient states she has tried donated blood at least twice in the past but was told that her "iron was too low." This patient most likely has:

a. Hb C trait b. Hb C disease c. Hb SC disease d. Hb SS disease - ✔✔b. Hb C disease A 58-year-old female was admitted for an elective hysterectomy. Upon admission, the patient is noted to have enlarged lymph nodes. She states that she has felt tired for the past several weeks. Her pre-op lab results are as follows. What is the likely diagnosis? Hb 8.8 q/dl, HCT 23.5%, WBC 55,000/mm3, PLT 95,000/mm3, Diff 23 segs, 48 lymphs, 15 monos, 14 smudge cells a. ALL b. CLL c. AML d. CML - ✔✔b. CLL (history & CBC (lymphs) fits CLL 90% of the ATP needed by red blood cells is generated in: a. Methemoglobin reductase pathway b. Hexose monophosphate shunt c. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway d. Leubering-Rapoport shunt - ✔✔c. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway Prothrombin complex is indicated for the treatment of: a. Mild von Willebrand's disease b. Severe hemophilia A without Factor VIII inhibitors c. Severe hemophilia A with Factor VIII inhibitors d. Severe Christmas disease - ✔✔d. Severe Christmas disease In a presurgical work-up, a patient's platelet count was normal and the PT, PTT, and TT were slightly prolonged. Inspection of the clot from the PT and PTT shows poor clot formation. Which factor is most likely deficient?

a. Factor X b. Factor XIII c. Fibrinogen d. Prothrombin - ✔✔b. Factor XIII A patient is admitted to the emergency department following a minor auto accident. Routine screening tests show the following results. No other patient history is available. What is the factor deficiency? Platelet count 2000,000/mm 3, PT 19.2 sec (control 14.8 sec), PTT 28.4 sec ( control 27.6 sec) a. V b. VII c. X d. XIII - ✔✔b. VII A 5-year-old boy presented with a bruised arms and legs. His mother stated that the bruising typically appeared without injury. Past medical history revealed that at 3 years of age the patient had an episode of nosebleed that required transfusion of one unit of blood. There was a family history of bleeding on the maternal side of the family. The patient's mother and maternal grandmother had abnormal bleeding. Physical examination revealed multiple bruises over the extremities. Laboratory testing shows the following results. PT 12.5 sec, PTT 39 sec, Platelets 255,000/uL Factor VIII level 60%, vWF:Aa 40% Which of the following is a treatment option? a. DDAVP b. Factor VIIa c. Factor IX concentrate d. Fresh Frozen Plasma - ✔✔a. DDAVP A 20-year-old male is admitted in the emergency department for a swollen knee after a falling accident. What is the diagnosis? PT 13 sec, PTT 65sec, Plt 45,000/uL, PTT 1:1 mix 33 sec at 0 min & 34 at 90 min a. van Willebrand disease b. Hemophilia A c. Fibrinogen deficiency

d. Lupus anticoagulant - ✔✔b. Hemophilia A Which of the following Factors has a short in vivo half-life and FFP should be strategically transfused immediately before a surgical procedure? a. Factor II b. Factor V c. Factor VII d. Factor VIII e. Factor IX - ✔✔c. Factor VII An exchange transfusion is ordered for an HDFN case that involves an antibody to a high-prevalence antigen. The blood for the exchange transfusion can most easily be obtained from the: a. Mother b. Father c. General blood inventory d. American Rare Donor Program - ✔✔a. Mother Interpret the following findings: Flow cytometry: negative Rossette Test: negative Kleihauer Betke: Positive a. Superior sensitivity of Kleihauer-Betke to detect D b. False positive Kleihaurer-Betke test c. Increased Hb F in maternal cells - ✔✔c. Increased Hb F in maternal cells The following results were obtained on a maternal specimen and cord blood. The most likely cause of this problem is: Mother: A Pos, Antibody Screen Negative Infant: AB Neg, DAT 3+

a. Blocked Rh antigen b. ABO incompatibility c. Rh incompatibility d. Antibody to a low-prevalence antigen - ✔✔d. Antibody to a low-prevalence antigen Refer to the same question above. Which of the following procedures would best resolve the discrepancy? a. Elute the antibody and perform a routine panel. b. Elute the antibody and test with A, B, and O cells. c. Elute the antibody and test with the father's red cells. d. Test the maternal serum with the baby's red cells. - ✔✔c. Elute the antibody and test with the father's red cells. Prenatal testing results indicate a woman was Rh negative. After delivery, a microscopic mixed-field agglutination is noted on the weak D test. You should: a. Report the patient is Rh positive. b. Give the patient one vial of RhlG. c. Do a Kleihauer-Betke stain. d. Do a DAT on the patient's cells. - ✔✔c. Do a Kleihauer-Betke stain. A KB test shows 18 fetal cells in 2000 adult cells. What is the volume of the fetal-maternal hemorrhage? a. 30 ml b. 40 ml c. 45 ml d. 55 ml - ✔✔c. 45 ml (18/2000)(5000)= 45 ml

A woman who delivered a normal term infant shows the following lab testing results. These results indicate: Mother: O Neg, Anti-D identified, titer= Infant: A Pos, DAT Neg a. The mother is a candidate for RhlG. b. The mother is NOT a candidate for RhlG. c. Further investigation is needed to decide RhlG candidacy. d. There are fetal cells in her circulation - ✔✔c. Further investigation is needed to decide RhlG candidacy (Could be anti-D Antepartum RhIG) Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia is caused primarily by which antibody? a. Anti-HLA Class I b. Anti-HPA-1 a c. Anti-HPA-1 b d. Anti-HNA-1 a e. Anti-HNA-1 b - ✔✔b. Anti-HPA-1 a Polymerase chain reaction: a. Involves the use of restriction enzymes that cut DNA into segments. b. Detects gene duplication and deletions. c. Uses DNA polymerase to replicate and amplify a specific gene sequence. d. Use probes such as cDNA or oligonucleotides to find a specific part of the gene. - ✔✔c. Uses DNA polymerase to replicate and amplify a specific gene sequence The development of protein from RNA is referred to: a. Transcription b. Translation c. Recombination d. Activation - ✔✔b. Translation

The amount of the antigen being measured that is exceeding the amount of antibody in enzymelinked immunosorbent assay can cause a technical problem called: a. Apotosis b. Dilutional effect c. Hook effect d. Prozone - ✔✔c. Hook effect The detection of the actual gene products is more accurately performed by: a. Chemiluminescence b. Nucleic acid testing c. Protein analysis d. Precipitation - ✔✔c. Protein analysis In enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for hepatitis B surface antigen, the second antibody linked to a reporter enzyme is called: a. Target antibody b. Conjugate c. Capture antibody d. Surrogate - ✔✔b. Conjugate What can be concluded from the following substances that produced the precipitin-in-gel reaction? a. A is identical to B; B is identical to C. b. A is identical to B; B is not identical to C. c. A is not identical to B; B is identical to C. d. A is not identical to B; B is not identical to C. e. A is identical to B; A is not identical to C. - ✔✔c. A is not identical to B; B is identical to C.

Given the following test results, what is the patient's likely ABO type? a. A1 b. A2 C. A3 d. Ax e. Ael - ✔✔e. Ael Initial testing at immediate spin tube testing gives the following results. Of the following choices, which is the most probable cause of these reactions? a. Normal group 0 b. Group O with unexpected antibody c. Subgroup of A with anti-A 1 d. group O with cold agglutinin - ✔✔b. Group O with unexpected antibody The following reactions were obtained on a trauma patient transferred from an outlying hospital. What is the most likely explanation for the results? a. Group A patient transfused with B RBCs b. Group AB patient transfused with A RBCs c. Group AB patient transfused with O RBCs d. Group B patient transfused with A RBCs - ✔✔b. Group AB patient transfused with A RBCs To differentiate anti-Fy3 from anti-Fy5, which cell should be tested? a. Fy(a+b+), D - - b. Fy(a-b-), Rh positive c. Fy(a+b+), Rh null d. Fy(a-b+), Rh negative - ✔✔c. Fy(a+b+), Rh null Using the tube test, a patient plasma reacted with all panel cells at IAT. The autocontrol is negative. All of the following are possible explanations EXCEPT:

a. Rouleaux b. Bombay phenotype c. Antibody to a high-prevalence antigen d. Multiple antibodies - ✔✔a. Rouleaux (Rouleaux disperses in saline) A prenatal sample shows an anti-M that is reactive with polyspecific AHG. What testing can be performed to determine the clinical significance of this antibody? a. DTT treat the patient's serum and retest. b. Retest using lgG AHG. c. Test the patient's serum with enzyme-treated cells. d. Lower the pH of the patient's serum to 6.5 and retest. - ✔✔a. DTT treat the patient's serum and retest. The following results are obtained when testing polyagglutinable cells with a panel of lectins. Which type of polyagglutination is present? a. T b. Tk C. Tn d. Th - ✔✔a. T A patient is admitted with 4.2 g/dl hemoglobin. Pretransfusion testing shows a possible warm autoantibody. The patient was transfused once several years ago following an aortic valve replacement. The most useful technique to resolve the warm autoantibody problem is to: a. Elution and identification of the antibody. b. Test random donor units until compatible units are found. c. Perform an autoadsorption. d. Perform an allogeneic adsorption. - ✔✔c. Perform an autoadsorption.

A patient has an antibody that reacts 2+ with cells at IAT. A complete phenotype of the patient's red cells showed: Group A, R2R2, K-k+, M+N+S-s+, Jk(a-b-), Fy(a-b+). What is the likely antibody? a. Anti-k b. Anti-U c. Anti-e d. Anti-Jk3 - ✔✔d. Anti-Jk3 D- - /D- - individuals, if immunized by red cells of "common" Rh type, can make: a. Anti-Rh 6 b. Anti-Rh 17 c. Anti-Rh 29 d. Anti-Rh 34 - ✔✔b. Anti-Rh 17 A patient was transfused in the emergency department with 2 RBCs and 2 FFPs prior to the completion of pretransfusion testing. Subsequent testing of the pretransfusion specimen showed the antibody screen to be positive, and both transfused RBCs were crossmatch incompatible. Another blood sample drawn following the transfusion showed a negative antibody screen and compatible crossmatch. What is the most likely antibody in the pretransfusion specimen? a. Anti-K b. Anti-Fyb c. Anti-Ch d. Anti-IH - ✔✔c. Anti-Ch (anti-Ch neutralized by plasma) A saline-reactive antibody is strongly positive with all adult cells, including the autocontrol, as well as cord cells. The enzyme panel is negative. The antibody is most likely: a. Anti-I b. Anti-i c. Anti-Gd d. Anti-Pr - ✔✔d. Anti-Pr

What is the most likely explanation for the following phenotyping results? a. R1R2 patient transfused with R1R1 red cells. b. R1R1 patient transfused with R1r red cells. c. R1r not recently transfused. d. R1r with fetal maternal hemorrhage. - ✔✔b. R1R1 patient transfused with R1r red cells. Examine the following panel. Which of the following antibodies is most likely present? a. Anti-Fy3 and anti-Fyb b. Anti-Fyx c. Anti-Fy3 d. Anti-Lea and anti-Leb - ✔✔c. Anti-Fy3 A patient plasma reacted with all cells tested using column technology. The following results were obtained when the plasma is testing with cells treated with blood bank chemicals. Of the following list, which is the most likely antibody? a. Anti-Oob b. Anti-Ge2 c. Anti-Ena FR d. Anti-Lub e. Anti-U - ✔✔d. Anti-Lub (LU is destroyed by DTT) If alloantibodies are present, which would remain in the patient serum after allogeneic adsorption with an adsorbing cells that is phenotype R2R2, Jk(a+b-)? a. Anti-C, - e, - Jkb b. Anti-c, - E, - Jka c. Anti-C, - e, - Jk3 d. Anti-O, - C, - E, - Jkb - ✔✔a. Anti-C, - e, - Jkb