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Question 1. What is the main purpose of emergent architecture in Scrum development? A) To define all architecture upfront B) To allow architecture to evolve through increments C) To prevent changes in design D) To avoid technical debt Answer: B Explanation: Emergent architecture allows the system's architecture to develop over time, based on feedback from each increment, rather than being fully specified at the start. Question 2. Which principle is most important when applying simple design in Scrum? A) Maximizing code complexity B) Minimizing dependencies C) Including only necessary features D) Documenting every detail Answer: C Explanation: Simple design focuses on building only what's needed, avoiding unnecessary features and complexity. Question 3. How does technical debt impact a Scrum Team’s velocity? A) Increases velocity B) Has no impact C) Decreases velocity over time D) Makes velocity unpredictable Answer: C Explanation: Accumulated technical debt slows development by requiring more time for maintenance and fixes, reducing velocity.
Question 4. Which SOLID principle emphasizes a class should have only one reason to change? A) Single Responsibility Principle B) Open/Closed Principle C) Liskov Substitution Principle D) Dependency Inversion Principle Answer: A Explanation: The Single Responsibility Principle ensures each class is responsible for a single functionality, making maintenance easier. Question 5. Who makes daily architectural decisions during a Sprint? A) Scrum Master B) Product Owner C) Developers D) Stakeholders Answer: C Explanation: Developers are accountable for technical and architectural decisions within the Sprint. Question 6. What is a benefit of pair programming in Scrum Teams? A) Reduces code quality B) Slows down development C) Increases knowledge sharing D) Prevents collaboration Answer: C Explanation: Pair programming fosters collaboration and spreads technical knowledge among team members.
Question 10. Which type of test is written before the implementation in Test-Driven Development (TDD)? A) Regression test B) Unit test C) Acceptance test D) Performance test Answer: B Explanation: In TDD, unit tests are written first to drive the implementation of code. Question 11. What does the “Red, Green, Refactor” cycle refer to? A) A deployment pipeline B) A testing strategy C) The TDD development cycle D) Scrum event sequence Answer: C Explanation: “Red, Green, Refactor” is the TDD cycle: write a failing test, make it pass, then clean up the code. Question 12. Which tool is commonly used for behavior-driven development (BDD)? A) JUnit B) Gherkin C) Jenkins D) SonarQube Answer: B Explanation: Gherkin is a language used to describe BDD scenarios in a human-readable format.
Question 13. What is the benefit of automated acceptance tests? A) They are slow to execute B) They verify PBIs meet acceptance criteria C) They replace all manual testing D) They require no maintenance Answer: B Explanation: Automated acceptance tests confirm that Product Backlog Items meet agreed-upon criteria efficiently. Question 14. What does high code coverage indicate? A) All code is bug-free B) Most code is tested C) No need for manual testing D) Code is poorly documented Answer: B Explanation: High code coverage means a large percentage of code is exercised by tests, but doesn’t guarantee bug-free code. Question 15. What is the primary focus of the testing pyramid? A) Emphasizing manual testing B) Prioritizing end-to-end tests C) Favoring unit tests for speed and reliability D) Ignoring integration tests Answer: C
Explanation: Automated build tools ensure consistent, repeatable processes for building and deploying software. Question 19. Which branching strategy supports frequent integration? A) Feature branching B) Trunk-based development C) Gitflow D) Forking Answer: B Explanation: Trunk-based development encourages frequent integration and reduces long-lived branches. Question 20. What does continuous delivery (CD) ensure? A) The product is always shippable B) Releases only happen annually C) Testing is optional D) Code is never deployed Answer: A Explanation: CD ensures the product is always in a deployable state, ready for release at any time. Question 21. Which principle is NOT one of the “Three Ways” of DevOps? A) Flow B) Feedback C) Continuous Learning D) Waterfall Planning Answer: D
Explanation: The Three Ways of DevOps are Flow, Feedback, and Continuous Learning/Experimentation. Question 22. What is the Developers’ role during backlog refinement? A) Approving release dates B) Adding detail and estimates to PBIs C) Writing user stories alone D) Avoiding technical discussions Answer: B Explanation: Developers collaborate with the Product Owner to refine PBIs by adding detail, estimates, and prioritization. Question 23. Which estimation technique uses relative sizing with cards? A) T-Shirt Sizing B) Planning Poker C) Affinity Mapping D) Dot Voting Answer: B Explanation: Planning Poker uses cards for relative estimation of work items. Question 24. What is a key benefit of splitting large PBIs? A) Increasing complexity B) Creating deliverable, valuable pieces C) Delaying delivery D) Ignoring acceptance criteria Answer: B
Explanation: Openness encourages team members to share challenges and ideas honestly. Question 28. What is the definition of the Increment in Scrum? A) A release plan B) The sum of all completed PBIs during a Sprint C) A list of unfinished tasks D) A backlog refinement artifact Answer: B Explanation: The Increment is the sum of all completed Product Backlog Items in a Sprint. Question 29. What are Developers accountable for in Scrum? A) Creating the Increment and instilling quality B) Setting release dates C) Managing stakeholders D) Writing user stories Answer: A Explanation: Developers are responsible for creating the Increment and maintaining technical quality. Question 30. What does self-management mean in Scrum Teams? A) Scrum Master assigns tasks B) Developers decide who does what, when, and how C) Product Owner controls workflow D) Stakeholders define priorities Answer: B Explanation: Self-management gives Developers authority to organize their own work.
Question 31. How does cross-functionality benefit a Scrum Team? A) Increases reliance on external experts B) Ensures all skills needed are present C) Reduces team collaboration D) Limits value delivery Answer: B Explanation: Cross-functionality ensures the team possesses all skills required to deliver value independently. Question 32. What is the Developers’ role during Sprint Planning? A) Forecasting work and crafting the Sprint Goal B) Approving the release plan C) Deciding technical debt alone D) Avoiding stakeholder input Answer: A Explanation: Developers forecast work, create the Sprint Goal, and detail the Sprint Backlog during Sprint Planning. Question 33. What is the main purpose of the Daily Scrum? A) Reporting to the Scrum Master B) Inspecting progress toward the Sprint Goal C) Planning releases D) Refining the Product Backlog Answer: B Explanation: The Daily Scrum is for Developers to inspect progress and adapt the Sprint Backlog.
Question 37. What is the Product Goal? A) The Sprint outcome B) A long-term objective for the Product C) A daily target D) The Definition of Done Answer: B Explanation: The Product Goal describes the desired long-term outcome for the product. Question 38. What is the Sprint Backlog? A) The list of unscheduled PBIs B) The real-time plan for achieving the Sprint Goal C) A release plan D) A product roadmap Answer: B Explanation: The Sprint Backlog is a real-time plan made by Developers for delivering the Sprint Goal. Question 39. What does the Definition of Done (DoD) describe? A) The state of PBIs when they are ready for refinement B) The quality measures required for the Increment C) The Product Owner’s responsibilities D) The release plan Answer: B Explanation: DoD is a formal description of the quality criteria required for the Increment.
Question 40. What is a consequence of undone work at the end of a Sprint? A) The Increment meets the Definition of Done B) The Increment is incomplete and not shippable C) The Sprint Goal is automatically achieved D) The Product Owner is responsible for fixes Answer: B Explanation: Undone work means the Increment does not meet the DoD and cannot be considered potentially shippable. Question 41. How do Developer decisions impact product value? A) By focusing only on technical debt B) Through technical solutions and quality trade-offs C) Ignoring stakeholder needs D) By delaying delivery Answer: B Explanation: Developer choices directly affect the product’s long-term value through technical and quality decisions. Question 42. What does forecasting in Scrum rely on? A) Fixed timelines B) Estimates and historical performance C) Ignoring past results D) Only the Product Owner's input Answer: B Explanation: Reliable forecasting uses estimates and historical data like velocity or throughput.
Question 46. What is the purpose of code reviews? A) To delay delivery B) To improve code quality and share knowledge C) To reduce collaboration D) To ignore coding standards Answer: B Explanation: Code reviews help improve quality and spread knowledge among Developers. Question 47. What does the Open/Closed Principle state? A) Code should be open for modification B) Code should be open for extension but closed for modification C) Code should always be rewritten D) Code should be closed for testing Answer: B Explanation: The Open/Closed Principle encourages extending code functionality without modifying existing code. Question 48. What is cyclomatic complexity? A) The amount of technical debt B) The number of independent paths in code C) The number of code comments D) The length of functions Answer: B Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity measures the number of unique execution paths in code, indicating its complexity.
Question 49. What is the main goal of maintainable code? A) To make code harder to change B) To facilitate easy understanding and modification C) To increase technical debt D) To avoid documentation Answer: B Explanation: Maintainable code is easy to understand, change, and debug, ensuring long-term quality. Question 50. Which artifact provides a transparent view of current work? A) Sprint Backlog B) Release calendar C) Product Goal D) Technical debt register Answer: A Explanation: The Sprint Backlog shows the real-time plan and progress toward the Sprint Goal. Question 51. What is a common technique for breaking down epics? A) Merging all PBIs B) Splitting into smaller, deliverable stories C) Ignoring acceptance criteria D) Delaying refinement Answer: B Explanation: Breaking epics into smaller stories makes them more manageable and deliverable within a Sprint.
A) Scrum Master B) Product Owner C) Developers D) Stakeholders Answer: C Explanation: Developers collectively define and uphold the Definition of Done. Question 56. What is an example of technical debt? A) Well-tested code B) Temporary workaround left unfixed C) Up-to-date documentation D) Automated deployments Answer: B Explanation: Technical debt refers to deferred work, such as temporary workarounds that need fixing later. Question 57. What is the goal of backlog refinement? A) To complete PBIs B) To clarify, estimate, and order items for future Sprints C) To set release dates D) To ignore technical risks Answer: B Explanation: Refinement adds detail, estimates, and order to PBIs for future delivery. Question 58. What is a risk of ignoring code standards?
A) Improved maintainability B) Reduced code quality and consistency C) Faster delivery D) Increased collaboration Answer: B Explanation: Ignoring standards leads to inconsistent, low-quality code that is harder to maintain. Question 59. What is the advantage of mob programming? A) Only one Developer works at a time B) All team members collaborate on the same code C) Reduces knowledge sharing D) Skips code reviews Answer: B Explanation: Mob programming involves the whole team working together, increasing collaboration and knowledge transfer. Question 60. What is the purpose of integration tests? A) To test individual functions only B) To verify that components work together C) To avoid code coverage D) To slow down development Answer: B Explanation: Integration tests ensure different components interact correctly. Question 61. What is the best way to ensure a feature meets business needs?
