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VA-BC Exam Review Study Notes
1. certification: a process by which a non-governmental organization certifies that a professional has met certain
predetermined standards in specialty practice
2. voluntary: Certification is (voluntary/involuntary)?
3. increases: Certification (increases/decreases) responsibility.
4. 1. patient protection
2. cultivates qualified healthcare professionals
3. continued competence: 3 purposes of certification:
5. 1. Re-examination
- 1000 hours of practice + 30 VA CE credits: Along with paying the recertification fees, what are the two options for recertification?
6. every 3 years: How often is recertification required?
7. standard: a basis for practice (regardless of setting); measurable; a legal tool
8. guideline: informational; gives direction, but NO legal impact
9. guidelines: CDC publishes (guidelines/standards).
10. standards: Various state boards publish (guidelines/standards).
11. Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH): FDA organization who sets forth
recommendations on vascular access devices:
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12. Class I: Class of devices with the lowest risk of harm (IV poles)
13. Class II: Class of devices with moderate risk of harm (IV cath)
14. Class III: Class of devices with greatest risk of harm (implanted devices)
15. healthc
are workers: OSHA's bloodborne pathogen rule was designed to protect by requir- ing gloves.
16. Phillip Crosby: Founding Father of QA who said "Do it right the first time"
17. Quality
Planning Quality Control Quality Improvement: Juran Trilogy
18. Deming: Founding Father of QA with 14 points for total quality
19. Bill Smith: Founding Father of QA with Six Sigma
20. quality assurance: determines the degree of excellence and care provided and strives to continually
improve the quality of care directed toward positive outcomes
21. 1. ensure the best IV care
2. decrease IV complications
3. assure timely and appropriate interventions: 3 goals of quality assurance in vascular access
procedures:
4 / particular state
35. Nurse Practice Act: individual state laws or rules that delineate the scope of practice for nurses
36. peer: an individual having similar expertise in a relevant and specific functional area gained through
37. peer review: review of information, data, or written material for technical correctness by a peer
38. policy: a document that serves as a guide for operations providing personnel with instruction and direction to
deliver care to patients; should be reviewed and updated annually
39. procedure: a document that describes necessary steps required to safely deliver care to a patient; should be
reviewed and updated annually
40. professional associations: organizations or groups that specialize in an area of practice and de-velop
standards or guidelines for practice, publish current data and research, and provide information regarding state-of-the-art practice and technology (ex: APA, APhA)
41. regulatory agencies: groups that may provide accreditation, control and direct activities according to
certain rules or principles and /or enforce written laws
42. risk management: a program that identifies potential hazards or problems which may cause harm to
patients
43. slander: the use of false or malicious statements
44. threshold: a level or value that must be reached for an ettect to be produced
45. 1. set standards
2. monitor practice
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3. evaluate outcomes
4. determine corrective action: Steps in the quality management process
46. 1. quality assessment and improvement
2. utilization management
3. infection control
4. risk management
5. safety: 5 areas of total quality management:
47. quality assurance: looks at care after delivery; individual correction; retrospective
48. quality improvement: strives to make care better; preventative; proactive; system correction
49. 1. design
2. measure
3. assess
4. improve: The Joint Commission Cycle for Improving Performance (4 steps)
50. flow sheets: Which form of documentation has the highest risk of error?
51. bad handrwriting: Why are narrative notes not a recommended form of documentation?
52. within 48 hours: When should patient callbacks occur after procedures?
53. concurrent: Type of data collection that occurs from initiation from termination of care (preferred)
