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2017/2018

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TLE Exam Drills
(Drafting)
1. Horizontal lines are best drawn using this instrument.
a. triangles c. meter stick
b. ruler d. t-square
2. To completely describe a cone, sphere, and rectangular
pyramid, how many views are needed?
a. two c. three
b. One d. six
3. What line is projected as a shorter line in a drawing?
A. vertical line c. curve line
b. inclined line d. horizontal line
4. Geometrical solids are usually drawn in how many views?
a. two views c. six views
b. four views d. eight views
5. If all the information needed to complete construction of a
product is shown, then what do you call this type of
mechanical drawing?
a. working drawing
b. schematic drawing
c. orthographic drawing
d. pictorial drawing
6. One of the best practices of a good draftsman is to NEVER
letter without __________.
a. guidelines c. lettering pens
b. pencil d. ink
7. In dimensioning an object, which view shows most clearly
the shape of the object?
a. Top view c. Right side view
b. Front view d. Bottom view
8. Central horizontal strokes of some letters placed at mid-
height appear to be below center due to optical illusion.
Which letters are they?
A. b, e, f & h c. a, k, t & y
b. r, s, g & p d. b, p, g & f
9. Letters that are composed of uniform width elements are
classified as _________.
a. Italic letters c. Gothic letters
b. Text letters d. Roman Letters
10. Boxing method is the most widely used method of
drawing a _________.
a. isometric view c. mechanical view
b. pictorial view d. perspective view
11. What is the horizontal guide line used to determine the
general height of lower case letters?
A. Cap line c. Base line
b. Waist line d. Drop line
12. These are lines to indicate the measurement of objects
and are represented by fine dark solid lines.
A. dimension lines c. leader lines
b. extension lines d. center lines
13. Drafting is considered as the universal language of
__________.
a. artistry c. industry
b. humanity d. pottery
14. If a drawing has an equal measure, what does it refers to?
a. isometric drawing
b. perspective drawing
c. mechanical drawing
d. oblique drawing
15. When parts that are not seen are represented by series of
light dash lines then this line is classified as _________.
a. reference line c. section line
b. visible line d. invisible line
16. What kind of drawing has one surface that is parallel to
the picture plane?
A. oblique drawing
b. isometric drawing
c. perspective drawing
d. orthographic drawing
17. This pictorial view is normally seen by the observer’s
eyes. Which one is it?
A. isometric drawing
b. oblique drawing
c. perspective drawing
d. orthographic drawing
18. A drawing instrument that serves as guide in drawing
vertical and diagonal lines as in triangles. It is generally used
in drawing horizontal lines. Which one it?
A. t-square c. triangle
b. extension line d. lettering guide
19. What is that fine line used to show clearly the dimension
limits?
A. center line c. dimension line
b. extension line d. phantom line
20. A type of section used to emphasize the interior
construction of an object without destroying the continuity of
the exterior view.
A. Phantom section or hidden section
b. Removed or detailed section
c. Revolved section
d. Full section
21. Where should you place the name of the top view for
labeling?
A. below the view
b. above the view
c. beside the view
d. inside the view
22. The lightest or finest line that represents the axis or
center of objects with symmetrical shapes is known as
_________.
a. extension line c. visible line
b. center line d. cutting plane line
23. These are considered as the heaviest or darkest lines that
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TLE Exam Drills (Drafting)

  1. Horizontal lines are best drawn using this instrument. a. triangles c. meter stick b. ruler d. t-square
  2. To completely describe a cone, sphere, and rectangular pyramid, how many views are needed? a. two c. three b. One d. six
  3. What line is projected as a shorter line in a drawing? A. vertical line c. curve line b. inclined line d. horizontal line
  4. Geometrical solids are usually drawn in how many views? a. two views c. six views b. four views d. eight views
  5. If all the information needed to complete construction of a product is shown, then what do you call this type of mechanical drawing? a. working drawing b. schematic drawing c. orthographic drawing d. pictorial drawing
  6. One of the best practices of a good draftsman is to NEVER letter without __________. a. guidelines c. lettering pens b. pencil d. ink
  7. In dimensioning an object, which view shows most clearly the shape of the object? a. Top view c. Right side view b. Front view d. Bottom view
  8. Central horizontal strokes of some letters placed at mid- height appear to be below center due to optical illusion. Which letters are they? A. b, e, f & h c. a, k, t & y b. r, s, g & p d. b, p, g & f
  9. Letters that are composed of uniform width elements are classified as _________. a. Italic letters c. Gothic letters b. Text letters d. Roman Letters
  10. Boxing method is the most widely used method of drawing a _________. a. isometric view c. mechanical view b. pictorial view d. perspective view
  11. What is the horizontal guide line used to determine the general height of lower case letters? A. Cap line c. Base line b. Waist line d. Drop line
  12. These are lines to indicate the measurement of objects and are represented by fine dark solid lines. A. dimension lines c. leader lines b. extension lines d. center lines
    1. Drafting is considered as the universal language of __________. a. artistry c. industry b. humanity d. pottery
    2. If a drawing has an equal measure, what does it refers to? a. isometric drawin g b. perspective drawing c. mechanical drawing d. oblique drawing
    3. When parts that are not seen are represented by series of light dash lines then this line is classified as _________. a. reference line c. section line b. visible line d. invisible line
    4. What kind of drawing has one surface that is parallel to the picture plane? A. oblique drawing b. isometric drawing c. perspective drawing d. orthographic drawing
    5. This pictorial view is normally seen by the observer’s eyes. Which one is it? A. isometric drawing b. oblique drawing c. perspective drawing d. orthographic drawing
    6. A drawing instrument that serves as guide in drawing vertical and diagonal lines as in triangles. It is generally used in drawing horizontal lines. Which one it? A. t-square c. triangle b. extension line d. lettering guide
    7. What is that fine line used to show clearly the dimension limits? A. center line c. dimension line b. extension line d. phantom line
    8. A type of section used to emphasize the interior construction of an object without destroying the continuity of the exterior view. A. Phantom section or hidden section b. Removed or detailed section c. Revolved section d. Full section
    9. Where should you place the name of the top view for labeling? A. below the view b. above the view c. beside the view d. inside the view
    10. The lightest or finest line that represents the axis or center of objects with symmetrical shapes is known as _________. a. extension line c. visible line b. center line d. cutting plane line
    11. These are considered as the heaviest or darkest lines that

surround a drawing and are usually rectangular in shape. A. border lines c. dimension lines b. visible lines d. cutting plane lines

  1. If a drawing is generally made without the aid of drawing instruments and straight edges then it is classified as __________. a. orthographic drawing b. isometric drawing c. freehand drawing d. axonometric drawing
  2. This view is generally drawn directly above the front view in an orthographic drawing. Which one is it? A. bottom view c. side view b. rear view d. top view
  3. Which of the following drawing instruments will you use if you are to create distances into equal parts, transfer measurement and spacing points or lines? A. dividers c. compass b. French curves d. templates
  4. These lines are used to indicate the measurement of objects and are represented by fine dark solid lines. A. dimension lines c. leader lines b. extension lines d. center lines
  5. When solidity of an object is shown by gradual darkening of its particular portion or portions, what process is involved? a. darkening c. shadowing b. shading d. lighting
  6. When parts that are not seen are represented by series of light dash lines then this line is classified as _________. a. visible line c. section line b. invisible line d. reference line
  7. One of the following is NOT included in the principles of an orthographic drawing. Which one is it? A. vertical line is drawn from top to bottom b. no line or edge of the object can be projected longer than its true length c. the width of the top view is equal to the width of the side views d. the side views are horizontally in line with the front view
  8. Miley is asked to draw an art project without the aid of drawing instruments and straight edges. Which of the following will she apply to perform the task? A. freehand drawing b. orthographic drawing c. isometric drawing d. axonometric drawing
  9. If you are to present the pictorial drawing that is most pleasing to the eyes of the viewer then one of the following methods should be used. A. isometric drawing b. oblique drawing c. perspective drawing d. orthographic drawing
    1. What is that kind of oblique drawing which is drawn with the side reduced to one half of the corresponding dimension in the orthographic drawing? A. cabinet drawing c. oblique drawing b. cavalier drawing d. isometric drawing
    2. if you are to draw an isometric drawing, how many axes will you use to perform the job? A. two c. four b. five d. three
    3. A kind of perspective drawing with one vanishing point is known as _________. a. parallel perspective c. cabinet drawing b. cavalier drawing d. angular perspective (Carpentry / Woodworking)
    4. Which part of the wood is consisting of substances that are insusceptible to attacks by insects and has high level of durability? A. Heartwood c. Cambium layer b. Sap wood d. Late wood
    5. Wood changes its shape during the drying process. What should be the approximate moisture content or drying percentage of hardwood for home furniture? A. 5 – 10% c. 20% b. 6 – 12% d. 25%
    6. Fiber direction of wood should be taken into consideration when designing a product. Which direction of fiber reaches the highest level of bending strength? A. Parallel to fiber direction b. Across the fiber direction c. Diagonal with the load d. Along the fiber direction
    7. What process is used in making bent wood products to easily distort the shape of the wood without reverting to its original state a. Cold water treatment b. Sun drying c. Heat treatment by hot stream d. High pressure treatment
    8. What tool is used to adjust the “kerf” or teeth of the saw in order to reduce friction between the saw blade and wood, and to discharge the saw dust easily? a. Triangular file c. Saw horse b. Pliers d. Saw set
    9. In sawing soft and thin wood, what is the recommended angle of the saw to the wood? a. 30 – 45 degrees c. 10 – 20 degrees b. 15 – 30 degrees d. 40 – 50 degrees
    10. Aside from having a sharp blade, how should you run a hand plane in a wood to get a good result? A. Run the hand plane parallel to the fiber direction of the wood b. Run the hand plane against the fiber direction of the wood c. Run the hand plane across the fiber direction of the wood d. Run the hand plane diagonally with fiber direction of the

squareness of the corners and flatness of a surface? a. Trammel point c. Sliding T-bevel b. Steel Square d. Try square

  1. Find the total number of board feet of five pieces of lumber with a dimension of 2” x 4” x 12’. a. 8 bd. ft c. 40 bd. ft b. 96 bd. ft d. 480 bd. Ft (Basic Masonry and Concrete)
    1. The most widely used masonry materials for construction works. A. Concrete hollow blocks b. Bricks c. Rubbles stone d. Ashlar
    2. It is the masonry material manufactured from clay and other materials. a. Stones c. Bricks b. Adobe d. Course rubbles
  2. What is the tool used to guide the vertical position in laying bricks? A. Plumb bob c. Spirit level b. Water hose d. String or chord
  3. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to consider in proportioning concrete mixture? A. Economy c. Strength b. Workability d. Flexibility
  4. Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded or deformed without segregation. This characteristic is known as _________. a. Consistency c. Mobility b. Plasticity d. Workability
  5. Which of the following classes of mixture produces a hard or tough concrete? A. Class AA c. Class B b. Class A d. Class C
  6. A good concrete can be produced also by hand mixing. Which of the following is a good concrete mix proportion for hand mixing? A. ½ kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel b. 2 kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel c. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel d. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 3 kg sand + 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel
  7. Which of the following should be avoided in placing concrete to its final form? A. Segregation of particles b. Displacement of form and displacement of reinforcement in the form c. Poor bond between successive layers of concrete d. All of the above should be avoided
  8. Gravel tends to settle, lighter materials and water to rise inside a container when displayed in the delivery to the form. What do you call this tendency? A. Displacement b. Segregation of Particles c. Consistency d. Mobility of particles
    1. Which factor/s regulates the strength of concrete? a. Correct proportion of the ingredients b. Proper method of mixing c. Adequate protection of concrete during the process of curing d. All of the above mentioned factors
    2. What do you call the mixture of cement, sand and water that used to bind stones, bricks or concrete hollow blocks? A. Mortar c. Concrete b. Plaster d. Cement
    3. A mixture of cement, sand and water applied wet to an interior wall or ceiling and hardening to a smooth surface is called _________. a. Mortar c. Concrete b. Plaster d. Cement
    4. What is the type of hydraulic cement is widely used in small and large construction including roads and highways? a. Hydraulic cement c. Pozzolan cement b. Portland cement d. Lime
    5. What material or ingredient in cement is added to concrete before or during mixing to improve its workability and consistency to fill all the voids of aggregates inside the form? A. Water c. Admixture b. Sand d. Gravel
    6. The inert material that is bound together into a conglomerate mass by Portland cement and water is known as __________. a. Aggregate c. Admixture b. Concrete d. Mortar
    7. In a total mass of concrete, how many percent comprises aggregate components? a. 50% c. 80% b. 75% d. 100%
    8. Which of the following are known as coarse aggregates in a concrete mixture? a. Sand c. Concrete b. Soil d. Stones
    9. What do you call the artificial stone that is a result from mixing cement, fine aggregates, coarse aggregates and water? a. Mortar c. Concrete b. Plaster d. Bricks
    10. A conglomeration of cement, fine aggregates, coarse aggregates water and reinforced by steel bars is called __________? a. Reinforced concrete b. Plain concrete c. Natural concrete d. Concrete with bars
    11. How many cubic feet of sand and gravel should be mixed with one 40 kg bag of cement to form a Class B mixture of concrete? A. 3 cu. ft. and 6 cu ft. gravel b. 2 cu. ft. and 4 cu ft. gravel

c. 2 cu. ft. and 5 cu ft. gravel d. 1 cu. ft. and 3 cu ft. Gravel

  1. To produce a Class AA mixture of concrete, how many cubic feet of gravel is added? A. 3 cu. ft. c. 5 cu. ft. b. 4cu. ft. d. 6 cu. ft.
  2. What is the ration of cement, sand, and gravel to produce a Class C mixture of concrete? A. 1 : 1 : 3 c. 1 : 2 : 5 b. 1 : 2 : 4 d. 1 : 3 : 6
  3. Following are factors that regulate the strength of concrete except one. Which is it? A. Correct portion of ingredient b. Proper method of mixing c. Adequate protection of concrete during curing d. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation
    1. What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag cement, 2 cu. ft. of sand and 4 cu. ft of gravel or 1:2:4? a. Class AA c. Class B b. Class A d. Class C
  4. Which among the following is a surface finishing tool for concrete? A. Crandal c. Float b. Bolster d. Spade
  5. Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to view. This arrangement is called __________. a. Header c. Bond b. Stretcher d. Ashlar
  6. In setting up concrete pavers, what material is used to prevent erosion from drainage? A. Filter fabric c. Compacted gravel b. Jute sack d. Bed of sand
  7. What do you call the process of hardening of concrete? A. Curing c. Hardening b. Setting d. Molding
  8. In laying out concrete walls and fences, what concrete material is commonly used? A. CHB or Concrete hollow blocks b. Bricks c. Tiles d. Boulders and stones
  9. Seventy percent (70%) of concrete strength is reached at the end of first week and thirty percent (30%) could be lost by premature drying of concrete. What must be done within the curing period to prevent premature drying? A. Moisten the concrete at all times within the curing period b. Submerge in water within the curing period c. Flood with water within the curing period d. Expose it to heavy rains during the curing period
  10. To prevent undue evaporation of moisture in the concrete that may affect its strength, what should be avoided? a. Continuous sprinkling of water b. Early removal of forms c. Cover surface with wet burlap d. Cover with wet sand
    1. According to the building code of the Philippines, for how many days shall concrete be maintained above 10 °C temperature and in a moist condition? A. 3 days c. 7 days b. 5 days d. 10 days
    2. What tool or instrument is used to set-up the lateral level of a concrete fence? A. Water hose level c. Plumb bob b. Spirit level d. Straight edge
    3. To obtain a fine textured concrete plaster, a mason may use this very useful material. What is that material? A. Rubber or plastic foam b. Plastic or nylon string c. Aligning stick d. Cotton cloth
    4. What material may be used by a mason in guiding, or making horizontal line particularly in bricks, tiles and concrete blocks laying? A. Aligning stick c. Plastic or nylon string b. Meter stick d. Thin GI wire (Basic Plumbing)
    5. A person who install pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey and supply water in buildings to dispose and discharge waste water. A. Carpenter c. Mason b. Plumber d. Mechanic
    6. What must be installed to prevent siphonage or backflow of the water seal in the drainage system? A. Vent Pipe c. Soil Pipe b. Drain Pipe d. Cleanout
    7. Which of the following is NOT required by the National Plumbing Code? A. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a downward gravity flow of water. B. Drainage pipe should be provided with adequate cleanout. c. Ventilation pipe is not always needed. D. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly connected.
    8. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from the water closet. A. Waste pipe c. Vent pipe b. Soil Pipe d. Drain pipe
    9. It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back passage of air. A. Trap b. Fixture c. Sewer d. Loop
    10. The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions and other metal fittings. A. Pipe vise b. Pliers c. Wrenches d. Threader
    11. It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic waste discharged from the house sewer.

d. Pipe with 3 % inclination

  1. In installing a water closet, what is the ideal diameter of the pipe to be used as soil pipe? A. At least 3 inches or 75 mm diameter b. Less than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter c. Not more than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter d. At least 4 inches or more than 75 mm diameter
  2. Among the processes that take place inside a septic tank, which of them refers to the decomposition of the accumulated sludge at the bottom of the tank? A. Sedimentation b. Digestion c. Anaerobic decomposition d. Decomposition
  3. The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there must be no more than two closets that shall discharge into a _________ pipe diameter? A. 3 inches or 75 mm c. less than 75 mm b. 80 mm d. 70 mm
    1. What should be provided in the house drain to prevent breaking of the floor case of drain stoppage? A. Cleanout b. Trap c. Drain flow d. Fitting
  4. What is the interval distance of a cleanout in a pipe layout as provided by the National Plumbing Code? A. One (1) cleanout for every ten (10) meters pipe layout b. One (1) cleanout for every twenty (20) meters pipe layout c. One (1) cleanout for every fifteen (15) meters pipe layout d. One (1) cleanout for every twenty-five (25) meters pipe layout
  5. What is the most common plumbing tool used to tighten or loosen metal pipe fittings and connections? A. Pipe wrench b. Mechanical wrench c. Adjustable wrench d. Expansion wrench (Basic Electricity)
  6. Circuit breakers are used to protect household electrical circuits. What is the capacity rating breaker used for convenience outlets or general purpose circuits? a. 20 amperes c. 15 amperes b. 30 amperes d. 60 amperes
  7. A form of electricity where the flow of current is always in the same direction _________. a. power b. direct current c. alternating current d. voltage
  8. The force which opposes and reduces the flow of electrical current is recognized as ________. a. resistance b. power c. electromagnetic force d. frequency
  9. A part of an electrical circuit, consist of batteries, generator or a main electrical power which supplies electricity. A. load b. source c. control d. voltage
  10. What is the voltage required by an automatic pressure cooker having a resistance of 30 ohms when the current flowing is 8 amperes? A. 480 volts c. 120 volts b. 160 volts d. 240 volts
    1. A law that states that current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to resistance is known as _________. a. kirchoff’s law c. ohm’s law b. law of resistivity d. PEC
      1. What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent lamp draw from a 220 volts power source? A. 18 amperes c. 25.5 amperes b. 55.5 amperes d. 50.5 amperes
    2. There are several factors involved in electrical wiring installation but the foremost consideration is ________. a. cost b. labor c. safety d. function
    3. What is the standard number or diameter of wire for receptacles or convenience outlet layout? A. No. 14 AWG c. No. 18 AWG b. No. 12 AWG ` d. No. 10 AWG
    4. To comply with the requirements of the Philippine Electrical Code the appropriate fuse rating for lighting outlet should be _________. a. 20 amperes c. 60 amperes b. 30 amperes d. 15 amperes
    5. Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is being done in order to __________. a. provide efficient and effective wiring system of the building b. maintain quality workmanship c. avoid overloaded circuit d. protect the circuit from high current
    6. In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt incandescent bulbs are connected in parallel. How many more bulbs will light if one of the bulbs is open? A. two b. one c. all d. none
    7. An electrical component used to control electrical circuit in two different locations. A. Four-way switch b. Three-way switch c. Push-button switch d. Remote controlled switch
    8. In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of the source is connected to __________. a. Terminal 1 of the load b. Terminal 2 of the load c. Terminal 1 of the switch d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
    9. Which of the following electrical symbols means that there are three wires running in a line? A. --/--/--/------ c. --------------- b. --/--/--/--/--- d. S3W
  1. To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be used in lighting fixtures? A. Incandescent lamp b. Mercury lamp c. Compact fluorescent lamp d. Neon lamp
    1. The size of electrical wire recommended for installing lighting fixtures. A. No. 12 AWG c. No. 18 AWG b. No. 14 AWG d. No. 10 AWG
    2. In calculating electrical usage, what is the equivalent value per square foot of a living space as established by the National Electric Code? A. 10 watts per square foot b. 5 watts per square foot c. 4 watts per square foot d. 3 watts per square foot
  2. What is the normal value for a power used for each 20- amp small-appliance circuit that is used for calculating electrical usage? A. 1,000 watts c. 2,000 watts b. 1,500 watts d. 2,500 watts
  3. What type of category of lighting is used to illuminate the area where a visual activity – such as reading, sewing or preparing food – occurs? A. Ambient or general lighting b. Accent lighting c. Task lighting d. Decorative lighting
  4. How do you classify that conduit made of PVC plastic which is used to protect individual conductors from moisture and physical harm and often allowed for interior installation? a. Rigid nonmetallic conduit b. Thin wall metal conduit c. Armored cable conduit d. Flexible hose
  5. Which of the following has the largest diameter of wire according to the American Wire Gauge (AWG)? a. No. 10 AWG c. No. 14 AWG b. No. 12 AWG d. No. 16 AWG
  6. Which of the following test instrument is used to determine the presence or absence of current flowing in a receptacle for a small-appliance circuit? A. Ohm meter c. Test lamp b. Ammeter d. Oscilloscope
  7. What unit is used to express the number of complete cycles performed in one second in an alternating current? A. frequency c. resistance b. power d. hertz
    1. What condition of a circuit refers to a huge amount of current flow caused by the line 1 of a live circuit directly touching line 2 without passing through a load? A. short circuit c. open circuit b. grounded circuit d. parallel circuit
    2. A type of circuit in which the current flows in two or more paths is known as _________. a. series circuit c. open circuit b. parallel circuit d. grounded circuit
    3. This condition exists when there is a break in the flow of electrons in some part of the circuit. A. short circuit c. series circuit b. shunt circuit d. open circuit
    4. Following Ohm’s Law, what formula is used to find the unknown voltage in the circuit? a. E = 1 X R c. I = E / R b. E = I / R d. E = R / I
    5. It is a close conducting path by which a current can transfer electric energy from a source to a load. A. electric current c. load b. resistance d. electric circuit
    6. In the illustration below the total voltage across A and B _________. a. 3 volts c. 45 volts b. 1.5 volts d. zero volts
    7. A series connected dry cells will result to _________. a. increase in the amount of current b. increase in the amount of voltage c. increase total resistance d. more powerful supply of electricity
    8. When a coil of wire passes through the rotating magnetic field electricity is generated. This phenomenon is associated with ___________. a. magnetism c. generating b. relativism d. fluidity
    9. Electrical symbols can be represented with graphical symbols commonly known as ____________. a. symbols and lines c. graphs and chart b. schematic diagram d. pictorial diagram
    10. The meaning of each symbol in an electrical plan is indicated in the __________. a. legend c. nameplate b. schedule of load d. riser diagram (Basic Electronics)
    11. In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the electrode with an arrow is the _________. a. Emitter c. Collector b. Base d. Cathode
    12. You will find an electrode nearest the white band on a rectifier. What is it? A. Gate b. Anode c. Cathode d. Main terminal
    13. An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations. The electronic component responsible for this function is the _________. a. Oscillator coil c. IF transformer b. Tuning capacitor d. detector diode

radio works. The basic unit frequency is __________. a. Hertz c. Siemens b. Farad d. Henry

  1. Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of a soldering iron refers to: a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper b. Applying flux to the tip c. Cutting the tip d. Making the tip pointed
  2. What is the rate or speed of the horizontal scanning or horizontal retrace in the screen of a television system? A. 15,750 hertz c. 60 hertz b. 100 megahertz d. 60 kilohertz
  3. What do you call the design drawn on the foil side of the printed circuit board? A. foil pattern b. schematic diagram c. magnetic board d. parts placement guide
  4. In a schematic diagram of a radio, symbols of part or components are indicated. Which of the following symbols represents a transistor? A. R b. C c. T d. Q
  5. What solution or chemical is used in etching copper clad in a period circuit board? A. Muriatic acid b. Hydrogen peroxide solution c. Ferric chloride d. Sulfuric acid solution (Foods) 1. Mila has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are some brown bits left on the bottom of the pan. While the pan is still on the stove, she added some white wine and scrapped the bottom of the pan. What do you call the technique she just used? A. Cleaning c. Caramelizing b. Deglazing d. Flambé
  6. If a recipe calls for you to “beat” something, what are you being asked to do? A. Harass it. B. Roll it with a rolling pin. C. Agitate the mixture until it is smooth. D. Cut it into smaller pieces.
  7. Energy value is expressed in terms of calories which represents the chemical energy that is released as heat when food is oxidized. Which nutrient has more than twice the calorie per gram? A. Carbohydrate b. Protein c. Fat d. Mineral
  8. Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients it needs. Which of the following nutrients is needed as the main structural component of the body? A. Carbohydrates b. Protein c. Fat d. Fiber
    1. Fresh produce contains chemical compounds called enzymes which cause the loss of color, loss of nutrients, flavor changes, and color changes in frozen fruits and vegetables. These enzymes must be inactivated to prevent such reactions from taking place. What kind of vegetables needs pre-cooking before packing? A. Non-acidic b. Acidic c. Neutral d. Basic
    2. Which cooking method is the LEAST healthy? A. Grilling b. Baking c. Frying d. Broiling
    3. Frostings are products that are closely associated with sugar. What kind of sugar used primarily in the preparation of flat icings and butter creams? A. Brown sugar c. Granulated sugar b. Refined sugar d. Confectioner sugar
    4. While Rachel is reading a magazine, she comes across a simple cake recipe. But the recipe calls for one cup of buttermilk, which she don’t have. What could she use instead of buttermilk? A. regular milk and vinegar b. coffee creamer c. vinegar and butter d. regular milk and butter
    5. Martha, a busy mother is on a limited food budget. Which of the dishes below is a good choice for her to prepare the viands that will still give her family their nutrient requirements? A. Ampalaya con karne c. Pork adobo b. Relienong talong d. Chicken tinola
      1. Which ingredient practically used in all native delicacies? a. Sugar b. Coconut milk c. Butter d. Rice flour
    6. Water is a remarkable substance for it occurs and used in various ways. When water boils at 212 degrees, what does “rolling boil” means? a. the bubbles are rolling non-stop b. the bubbles are forming rapidly and cannot be stopped when stirred c. the bubbles are forming slowly and can be stopped when stirred d. the bubbles are spilling out of a container
    7. A cake just wouldn’t be a cake without frosting for it adds visual appeal and flavor. What is the classification of fudge frosting? A. Soft b. Uncooked c. Thick d. Cooked
    8. Meat is cooked to improve its palatability, increase tenderness and quality. To minimize meat shrinkage and retain much of its nutritive value, the best cooking temperature is: a. moist heat c. high heat b. low to moderate heat d. dry heat
    9. What does ‘proofing’ means? A. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are the same size b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon dioxide c. Testing cakes for doneness d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg whites for a

shiny glazed finish

  1. The boiling point of water is a very important reference point in cooking. When boiling water what does adding salt do? A. Make the water softer b. Makes the water boil more quickly c. Makes the water boil at higher temperature d. Makes the water boil at a lower temperature
  2. Food safety is the most important factor in cooking. It doesn’t matter how delicious or complicated the recipe is: if the food makes people sick because of improper cooking or handling, all the efforts will be wasted. How long does it take for bacteria to double their numbers at warm temperatures? a. half an hour b. 2 hours c. 4 hours d. 1 day
  3. What is the final cooking temperature for raw chicken? a. 140 °F b. 165 °F c. 155 °F d. 140 °F
  4. Several ingredients act as leaveners in baking. Which ingredient for bread hurts the leavening (rising) ability? a. sugar b. flour c. salt d. water
  5. Meats are considered rich in proteins, what kind of protein is found in connective tissue of meat that converts to gelatin when it is cooked? A. Elastin c. Marbling b. Gluten d. Collagen
    1. How do you know if you are “simmering” something? A. If there is cooking oil involved b. If the liquid you are dealing with has reached a rolling boil c. If you are maintaining the temperature of the liquid just below boiling point d. If the liquid has reached more than the boiling point
  6. Always serve beverage on _________ side of the guest using the right hand. a. right c. center b. left d. left or right
  7. One of the objectives of good food preparation is to conserve the nutritive value of the food. What is the best way to prepare vegetables to retain the most antioxidant activity? a. Serve raw b. Steam c. Boil lightly d. Microwave
  8. Salads usually use brightly colored fruits, vegetables and greens. What’s the best way to help oil-based salad dressings adhere to the greens? A. Used only expensive lettuce b. salt salad before tossing c. Add a drop of sugar to dressing d. Make sure greens are completely dry before applying dressing
  9. Nutrients are substances that enrich the body. Which of these nutrients is needed for a healthy immune and strong connective tissue? a. Fiber b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin C d. Fluoride
  10. Iron is absorbed the best from the diet comes from which sources? A. meat b. milk and milk product c. spinach, pechay, other green leafy vegetables d. enriched whole grains
    1. Healthy diets are: a. adequate and balanced b. do not include sugars c. controlled d. low in potassium
    2. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about water in the human body? A. helps regulate body temperature b. will relieve fatigue, migraines, and high blood pressures c. the largest component of the adult human body weight d. provides a medium for chemical reactions
    3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in the breading procedure? A. Flour, egg wash, flour b. Flour, egg wash, bread crumbs c. Flour, water, bread crumbs d. Egg wash, flour, bread crumbs
    4. Vera is planning to have a party of more than 50 guests. What type of table service would you recommend to her? a. Blue plate service c. Formal service b. French service d. Buffet service
    5. A kind of cloth plays vital role in setting the mood of the dining table. What do you call that long narrow strips of cloth used on bare tables? A. Silence cloth c. Top cloth b. Table cloth d. Table runner
    6. When testing the doneness of the cake, a cake tester is inserted at what part of the cake? A. Bottom side c. side b. Center d. Upper side
    7. Chef Roy is preparing a chocolate frosting? What cooking technique would you recommend to her? A. Cook chocolate in a double boiler b. Cook chocolate over high degree c. Cook chocolate over low flame d. Cook chocolate using steam
    8. Ka Rosa is preparing a native rice cake (biko). She ran out of panocha, a local sweetener, what could be the best substitute for panocha? A. Brown sugar c. Washed sugar b. Powdered sugar d. White sugar
    9. What is that kitchen tool appropriate in applying egg wash to pies and pastries? A. Rubber scraper c. Tong b. Spatula d. Pastry Brush
    10. Which of the following mixing technique is described when a baker mixes the dough with a pressing motion

c. cutting thicker lengths d. cutting the hair close to the head

  1. The amount of elevation from head form is: a. dictated by parting size b. equal to the subsection size c. measured in degrees d. measured in inches
  2. What is the skin type that has medium pores, a smooth and even texture, good circulation, healthy color, may tend toward dryness on the cheeks while being oily in the t-zone? a. oily skin b. sensitive skin c. combination/normal skin d. dry skin
  3. A section of hair that is molded in a circular movement in preparation for the formulation of curls is: a. shaping b. parting c. base d. section
  4. By parting the hair at the parietal ridge and continuing all the way around the head, you can locate the: a. crown b. sides c. front d. top
  5. Blunt or straight lines are cut in the hair with: a. hair cutting shears c. a clipper b. a straight razor d. thinning shears
  6. The relationship between hair, face and body type is called ___________. a. emphasis b. proportion c. symmetry d. contrasting lines
  7. For corrective make-up application, a darker shade of eye color makes the natural color of the eye appear a. lighter c. smaller b. darker d. deeper
  8. The condition of the hair and scalp is most influenced by the shampoo products. A. color c. thickness b. acidity or alkalinity d. lathering ability
  9. For nail polish application, the functions of top coat include to : a. prevent staining of the nail b. protect the enamel from chipping c. fill in ridges d. prevent the nail from breaking
  10. What type of nail products is a cuticle cream? A. emulsion b. astringent c. exfoliant d. emollient
  11. What is the effect of highlighter above the cheekbones? A. To emphasize good bone structure b. To diminish cheekbones c. To attract attention to the eyes d. To attract attention to the nose
  12. During the nail application, when do excess nail polish is best removed? A. after all fingers are done b. with the use of a pusher c. when it is necessary d. right after each application
    1. In manicuring, softening the cuticle with cuticle oil is good treatment for: a. white spots on nails b. hang nails c. cut or bleeding cuticle d. redness or swelling around the nail
    2. Dead cuticle tissue is usually removed: a. just before the base coat is applied to nail b. as the last step of manicuring procedure c. after loosing the cuticle by the pusher d. right after the soaking period
    3. the section of the pin curl between the base and the first arch is the: a. stem b. curl c. circle d. wave
    4. During the haircutting procedure, the fine teeth or the styling comb are used to: a. detangle wet hair b. holds the hair at high elevations c. comb and part the hair d. comb the subsection before cutting
    5. During a shampoo service, manipulating the scalp immediately follows: a. squeezing excess water from hair b. applying shampoo c. adjusting water volume d. comfortably seating the client
    6. When preparing to shampoo a client, it’s important to: a. apply an infrared lamp b. apply a scalp steamer c. brush the hair for 15 minutes d. examine the client’s hair and scalp
    7. Moisturizers contain an ingredient that helps the skin retain: a. Oil b. water c. vitamins d. collagen
    8. Madeleine requests for a scalp treatment service because her hair is dry. Which of the following products would you recommend? A. alcoholic lotion b. mineral or sulfonated oil c. Baby shampoo d. moisturizers or emollients
    9. How often would you advice a person for a facial with normal skin? A. about once a week c. daily b. about a month d. about twice a month
    10. How can ingrown toe nails be prevented in pedicuring? A. File or clip corners of nail. B. File toe nails rounding them slightly to conform shape of toes. C. Leave toe nails’ corner alone d. Clipped dead skins near toenails’ corners.
  1. When conducting a client consultation, you can begin to make decisions about the most suitable haircut for the client by analyzing the: a. hair length c. hair color b. skin type d. face shape
  2. In haircutting, your __________ hand will generally be your dominant hand. A. holding c. cutting b. weak d. controlling
  3. Where all manicuring cosmetic supplies should be kept when not being used? A. On a clean shelf. B. On the manicuring table c. In a clean manicuring kit d. In clean, closed containers (Entrepreneurship)
  4. A concept among business-minded individuals who want to start small, but dream of becoming huge financial success in the future is known as _________. a. Entrepreneurship c. Small business b. Enterprise d. Buy and sell
  5. You want to start your own business, what should you consider? A. Assess your entrepreneurial inclinations. B. Get to know your target market. C. Make a business plan. D. All of the above should be considered.
  6. To be able to steer your business in the first difficult months, you need a good _________. a. Marketing Plan c. Production Plan b. Financial Plan d. Out-sourcing Plan
  7. For the business to have a legal personality, a business man has to __________. a. Organize it. B. Register it in proper institution / agency. C. Hire lawyers for the business. D. Hire an accountant for the business.
  8. Which of the following implies that the entrepreneur has a “word of honor”? a. When he pays suppliers on due date. B. Give employees salaries and benefits agreed on. C. Deliver on the day his customer ask him to do. D. All opinions above are correct.
  9. In the business plan essentials, which part encapsulates entire business plan? A. The mission statement b. The executive summary c. The management team d. The marketing plan
  10. What type of entrepreneurial business actually produces the products they sell? A. Manufacturing c. Retailing b. Wholesaling d. Service
    1. A (n) __________ captures the reader’s attention, should explain the business status, provide objectives, and describe products or services. A. Executive summary c. Table of contents b. transmittal letter d. fact sheet
    2. Locations, facilities, labor and manufacturing [plans are part of: a. Financial plan b. Marketing plan c. Implementation plan d. Production / Operations Plan
    3. Work Ethics are: a. based on moral virtues of hard work b. based on working hard only when the manager is looking c. based on looking for shortcuts d. based on trying to get to work on time
    4. An individual who can identify the various products or services which people need and deliver these at the right time and place and at the price: a. Entrepreneur c. Industrialist b. Capitalist d. Contractor
    5. A business form which is owned by only one person is: a. Cooperative c. Partnership b. Corporation d. Sole proprietorship
    6. The ___________ plan tells what has to be done, when, how and who as far as sales, advertising, policy and distribution. A. Marketing c. Pricing b. Financial d. Selection
    7. The aspect of business management that analyzes and determines the supply and demand for the product or service in the past and its competitive position at present is: a. Financial aspect c. Production aspect b. Marketing aspect d. Budgeting aspect
    8. A __________ statement should be short (one/two sentences) easy to understand and easy to remember. A. Mission c. Cash flow b. Vision d. Pro Forma
    9. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to create market and produce new goods and services: a. Salesman c. Proprietorship b. Partnership d. Entrepreneurship
    10. The probable problems that a business and entrepreneur faces are: a. Strengths c. Weakness b. Opportunities d. Threats
    11. Reviewing at any point of the business period the strength and weaknesses of the venture is referred to as ___________. a. Monitoring and evaluating b. Risk taking c. Opportunity seeking
  1. If you are paid a certain amount of money for every sale you make or a percent of the value of your sales, which type of pay are you receiving? A. commission c. piece work b. straight time pay d. profit share
  2. What is it called when you determine how many units of a product must be made and sold to cover production expenses? A. quality control b. break-even analysis c. a time study analysis d. unit analysis
  3. Margie is buying donuts at the bakery for her classmates at school. She wants to buy twice as many as students in her class. Margie has 18 students in her class. About how many donuts should Margie buy? A. 20 donuts c. 40 donuts b. 50 donuts d. 60 donuts
  4. Mr. Calbo had 776 4/5 dozens of canned tuna luncheon meat. He divided equally these dozens of canned tuna luncheon meat to 8 buyers. How many dozens of canned tuna luncheon meat did each buyer get? A. 90 dozens c. 98 dozens b. 98.8 dozens d. 97 1/10 dozens
  5. Lea’s Enterprise gives 10% profit to all items for sale. What is the profit if the capital of the goods is P 50.00, P 870.00? a. P 5180.00 c. P 5, 087. b. P 5017.00 d. P 508.
  6. What is 125% expressed a s a mixed number in simplest form? a. 1 ¼ c. 4/ b. 125/100 d. 25/
  7. An asset is considered to be a current asset if: a. It has been bought recently and was bought new and not used. B. It could be sold immediately by the business for other assets. C. It could be realized in cash or sold or consumed in the business within one year. D. It is a piece of new machinery that is expected to fast for at least ten years
  8. Net income is: a. revenues less the cost of goods sold to customers and operating expenses b. revenues less the cost of goods sold to customers, operating expenses interest expense and taxes c. revenues less the cost of goods sold to customers d. cash collected less cash paid out
  9. Find the profit of Manny’s water refilling business with revenue of P 56, 000, 000 and costs of P 42, 000, 000. a. P 14, 000, 000 c. P 1, 400, 000 b. P 140, 000 d. P 14, 000
  10. How long it would take a $ 200 bank account earning 8% simple interest to earn 4 40 interest? A. 2 years c. 2.5 years b. 1 year d. 1.5 years
    1. Nora’s food stall has costs of P 2, 900. Her total food sales are P 11, 600. What percent of her food sales do the food costs represent? A. 20% b. 25% c. 27% d. 30%
    2. Jonie needs 250 cookies for a buffet. he will make oatmeal raisin, macaroons, and chocolate chunk cookies. He wants 25% of the cookies to be oatmeal raisin and 15% of the cookies to be macaroons. How many chocolate chunk cookies must Jonie bake? A. 150 b. 125 c. 140 d. 100
    3. What is the total of your cash, plus items you have purchased, plus money your customers owe you called? a. inventory c. liabilities b. assets d. profit
    4. What does a balance sheet show? A. the financial position of your company on a certain date b. how much money everybody in your company makes c. the difference between two income statements d. the summary of your company’s profit
    5. If a shirt marked down 25%, what will the purchase price be? A. P 25 c. 50% off b. 75% of its original price d. P 75
    6. What is the difference between the cost of a product and its selling price called? A. the retail price c. the discount b. the markup d. the percentage discount
    7. What is the correct accounting name given to distributions of cash or other assets from an incorporated business to its shareholders? A. business perks c. dividends b. bonuses d. drawings
    8. A customer places a special order through 480 Furniture Store. The list price in the manufacturer’s catalog is P 1, 600. 480 Furniture receives a 35% trade discount. What is the net price for the furniture order? A. P560 b. P1,535 c. P1,565 d. P1,
    9. Min’s Manufacturing offers discounts on most of its products. What is the trade discount rate on an item with a list price of P 16.79 and a net price of P 12.42? a. 22% b. 26% c. 54% d. 74%
    10. Lina buys 4 scrapbook kits at P 9.99 each, 2 sets of scissors for P 9.99 each and 1 circle cutter for p 24.99. The sales tax rate is 5%. What is the total purchase price? A. P 8.25 c. P 68. b. P 162.69 d. P 173.
    11. During her vacation in the US, Carla had purchased a sweater from the clearance rack and gave the clerk $30.00. She received $4.96 in change. IF the sales tax rate was 8%,

find the total selling price? A. $ 21.04 c. $ 23. b. $ 25.04 d. $ 27.

  1. To pay for his son’s tuition, Mr. Torre borrows P95, 800.00 from a lending institution with an interest rate of 9.5% a year. How much is his interest for one year? a. P 910.00 c. P 9,101. b. P 9011.00 d. P 9,111.
  2. Last week, Michelle bought a new computer for 10% off the advertised price in an online store. The advertised price was $ 1,800. How much did Michelle have to pay for the computer? A. $ 1, 800 c. $ 1, 980 b. $ 2, 200 d. $ 1, 620
  3. Which of these is true statement? A. Payment made for the use of someone else’s money is called interest. B. Payment made into an investment is called interest. C. Payment made for the use of someone else’s money is called principal. D. Payment made into a bank account is called interest.
  4. Paula always spends in full her P200 weekly allowance. She decided to decrease her expenses by 24% for savings. Compute for her new weekly allowance. A. P52 b. P142 c. P152 d. P
  5. After net income in entered on the work sheet, the Balance Sheet debit and credit columns must: a. be the same amount As the total amount of the Income Statement debit and credit columns b. equal each other c. be the same amount as the amount in the Adjusted Trial Balance debit and credit columns d. not be equal to each other and need not to be the same total amounts as any other pair of columns on the work sheet
  6. Adjusting entries: a. need not be journalized since they appear on the work sheet b. need not be posted if the financial statements are prepared from the work sheet c. are not needed if reversing entries are prepared d. must be journalized and posted
  7. Mr. Montemayor harvested 890 kilograms of shrimps from his fishpond. He sold 6/8 of shrimps in international markets and 2/8 of shrimps was sold in domestic markets. (a) How many kilograms of shrimps did he sell in international markets? (b) How many kilograms did he sell in domestic markets? A. 660.25 kg / 140. b. 770 kg / 120 kg c. 778.75 kg / 111 .25 kg d. 667.5 kg / 222.5 kg
  8. A marketing manager sold items worth P 189, 355, 000. His commission as incentive is 7%. How much is his commission? A. P 1,325.48 c. P 1,300. b. P 13,254.85 d. P 13,250.
    1. Aizza bought 3 ¼ kilograms of chico, 2 ½ kilograms of grapes, 4 ¾ kilograms of water melon. how many kilograms of fruits did she buy altogether? A. 9 ½ kg b. 10 ½ kg c. 7 ½ kg d. 11 kg
    2. What is the decimal 0.33 written as a fraction? A. 1/3 b. 1/4 c. 1/8 d. 1/
    3. Jessa made a fruit tart using red and green grapes. Forty percent of the grapes are green. If she used a total of 80 grapes, how many red grapes did she use? A. 36 b. 42 c. 48 d. 50
    4. Which of the following items should not be included in a listing of current assets? a. marketable securities b. accounts payable c. accounts receivable d. inventories ANSWER KEYS Drafting
    5. D 11. B 21. B 31. A
    6. A 12. A 22. B 32. C
    7. B 13. C 23. A 33. A
    8. C 14. A 24. C 34. D
    9. A 15. D 25. D 35. A
    10. A 16. A 26. A
    11. B 17. C 27. A
    12. A 18. A 28. B
    13. C 19. B 29. B 10.A20. A 30. A Carpentry / Woodworking
    14. A 11. C 21. A 31. D
    15. B 12. A 22. C 32. A
    16. A 13. B 23. A 33. A
    17. C 14. B 24. B 34. D
    18. D 15. A 25. A 35. C
    19. B 16. D 26. D
    20. A 17. C 27. C
    21. D 18. A 28. A
    22. A 19. B 29. C
    23. C 20. D 30. A Basic Masonry and Concrete
    24. A 11. A 21. A 31. B
    25. C 12. B 22. D 32. C
    26. A 13. B 23. D 33. A
    27. D 14. C 24. B 34. A
    28. B 15. A 25. C 35. C
    29. A 16. B 26. B
    30. A 17. C 27. A
    31. D 18. C 28. A
    32. B 19. A 29. A
    33. D 20.C 30.A