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ACE Personal Trainer Manual
When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED? a. Long-term goals b. Outcome goals c. Negative goals d. Performance goals - correct answer ✔✔c. Negative goals Setting negative goals puts the focus on the behavior that should be avoided, not the behavior to be achieved. It is important that the client is thinking about achievement, not avoidance. Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum? - correct answer ✔✔They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations While other members of the allied healthcare continuum might also give patients or clients guidelines for general exercise (e.g., "try to walk up to 30 minutes per day, most days of the week"), few of them actually teach clients how to exercise effectively. This is where personal trainers hold a unique position in the allied healthcare continuum. What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification? - correct answer ✔✔To protect the public from harm The primary purpose of a certification is to protect the public from harm by assessing if the professional can perform the job in a safe and effective manner. Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of "scope of practice"?
a. The legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide b. The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace c. The setting in which the services can be provided d. Guidelines or parameters that must be followed - correct answer ✔✔b. The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace A scope of practice defines the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be followed. According the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries. a. True b. False - correct answer ✔✔b. False Personal trainers can design exercise programs once clients have been released from rehabilitation, but they cannot "rehabilitate" clients after injury. As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow _______________ of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam. - correct answer ✔✔3 to 4 months As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow three to four months of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam. Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise program to treat it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice. a. True b. False - correct answer ✔✔False
Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected area is the appropriate response. The other options all fall outside the ACE scope of practice. Adherence is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose. a. True b. False - correct answer ✔✔False For the purposes of a fitness professional, exercise adherence refers to voluntary and active involvement in an exercise program. Motivation is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose. More than _____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months. - correct answer ✔✔50% More than 50% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months. Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential determinants for physical activity? a. Personal attributes b. Physical attributes c. Environmental factors d. Physical-activity factors - correct answer ✔✔b. Physical attributes The potential determinants for physical activity can be broken down into three categories:
- Personal attributes
- Environmental factors
- Physical-activity factors
General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST likely to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings? a. Older adults b. Men c. Those with fewer years of education d. Those in a lower socioeconomic bracket - correct answer ✔✔b. Men Men demonstrate higher and more consistent activity adherence than women. Lower levels of physical-activity participation are seen with increasing age, fewer years of education, and low income. What is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable when predicting adherence to physical activity? - correct answer ✔✔Activity history Activity history is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable. In supervised exercise programs, past program participation is the most reliable predictor of current participation. This relationship between past participation and current participation is consistent across gender, obesity, and coronary heart disease status. _______________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program. - correct answer ✔✔Perceived lack of time Perceived lack of time is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program. The perception of not having enough time to exercise is likely a reflection of not being interested in or enjoying the activity, or not being committed to the activity program. Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to adhere to a supervised physical- activity program? a. A highly motivator beginner who elects to begin a vigorous-intensity exercise program
Setting negative goals puts the focus on the behavior that should be avoided, not the behavior to be achieved. It is important that the client is thinking about achievement, not avoidance. What is the MOST important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse? a. Enhancing the client's assertiveness b. Developing a system of social support c. Planning ahead and being prepared d. Signing behavioral contracts - correct answer ✔✔c. Planning ahead and being prepared The most important tool in dealing with a relapse is planning ahead and being prepared. Personal trainers should educate their clients about the potential occurrence of a relapse and prepare them in advance, so that they are able to get back on track with their activity programs soon after experiencing a relapse. Which of the following presents the four stages of the client-trainer relationship in their proper order? a. Investigation, planning, action, rapport b. Rapport, investigation, planning, action c. Rapport, planning, investigation, action d. Planning, rapport, investigation, action - correct answer ✔✔b. Rapport, investigation, planning, action The four stages of the client-trainer relationship, in their proper order, are rapport, investigation, planning, and action. The rapport stage involves setting a foundation of mutual understanding and trust; the investigation stage involves reviewing the client's health and fitness data and history; the planning stage involves designing an exercise program in partnership with the client; and the action stage is when the client begins exercising.
A loud, tense voice communicates confidence and professionalism when speaking to a new client. a. True b. False - correct answer ✔✔False A loud, tense voice tends to make people nervous. Personal trainers should try to develop a voice that is firm and confident to communicate professionalism. Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer? a. Standing with an open body position b. Seated while leaning slightly forward c. Standing with hands on hips d. Seated behind a desk with legs crossed - correct answer ✔✔c. Standing with hands on hips An open, well-balanced, erect body position communicates confidence, while a rigid, hands-on-hips stance may be interpreted as aggressive. Which of the following behaviors would MOST likely help a trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial session? a. Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring; sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean b. Speaking in a soft, friendly voice; leaning against the chair armrest with forearms loosely crossed c. Direct, friendly eye contact; maintaining a smile and enthusiasm throughout the session d. Speaking in a firm voice with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands when listening - correct answer ✔✔d. Speaking in a firm voice with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands when listening
Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client- trainer relationship? a. Rapport b. Investigation c. Planning d. Action - correct answer ✔✔c. Planning Motivational interviewing refers to a method of speaking with people in a way that motivates them to make a decision to change their behavior. Motivational interviewing may help clients feel the need to become more active and make a decision to start exercising. The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order? a. Correct errors; provide reinforcement for what was done well; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving b. Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving c. Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors d. Correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well - correct answer ✔✔b. Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving Feedback should do three things:
- Provide reinforcement for what was done well
- Correct errors
- Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving The correcting of errors, which may be seen as the more "negative" point, should be sandwiched between reinforcement and motivation.
Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for specific feedback are in which stage of motor learning? a. Cognitive b. Associative c. Autonomous d. Affective - correct answer ✔✔b. Associative In the associative stage of learning, clients begin to master the basics and are ready for more specific feedback that will help them refine the motor skill. During which stage of learning are clients performing motor skills effectively and naturally and the personal trainer doing less teaching and more monitoring? a. Cognitive b. Associative c. Autonomous d. Affective - correct answer ✔✔c. Autonomous In the autonomous stage of learning, clients are performing motor skills effectively and naturally, and the personal trainer is doing less teaching and more monitoring. Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem? a. Transtheoretical model of behavioral change b. Health belief model c. Self-efficacy model d. Stages of change model - correct answer ✔✔b. Health belief model
b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance - correct answer ✔✔b. Preparation The preparation stage is marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program. Activity during the preparation stage may be a sporadic walk, or even a periodic visit to the gym, but it is inconsistent. People in the preparation stage are ready to adopt and live an active lifestyle. Which of the following intervention strategies would be LEAST appropriate when working with someone in the precontemplation stage? a. Make inactivity a relevant issue b. Provide information about the risks of being inactive and the benefits of being active c. Provide information from multiple sources (e.g., news, posters, pamphlets, and general health-promotion material) d. Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys - correct answer ✔✔d. Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys This intervention is most appropriate for someone in the preparation stage. _______________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program. a. Processes of change b. Self-efficacy c. Operant conditioning d. Decisional balance - correct answer ✔✔d. Decisional balance
One of the four components of the transtheoretical model, decisional balance refers to the number of pros and cons that an individual perceives about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program. Which of the following occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased? a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Extinction d. Punishment - correct answer ✔✔c. Extinction Extinction occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased. A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to work out on his way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using? a. Stimulus control b. Observational learning c. Shaping d. Operant conditioning - correct answer ✔✔a. Stimulus control Stimulus control refers to making adjustments to the environment to increase the likelihood of healthy behaviors. Simple and effective stimulus-control strategies may include choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work; keeping a gym bag in the car that contains all the required items for a workout; having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts; and writing down workout times as part of a weekly schedule. When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated? a. Whenever the client has a relapse into inactivity
b. False - correct answer ✔✔a. True The proper order of the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is as follows: stability and mobility training, movement training, load training, and performance training. During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement patterns a primary focus? a. Stability and mobility training b. Movement training c. Load training d. Performance training - correct answer ✔✔c. Load training The focus of phase 3, or load training, is on applying external resistances, or loads, to functional movement patterns. Phase 3 applies the traditional resistance-training methodology for endurance, hypertrophy (or strength-endurance), and strength to the client's particular goals. A client who is in the load-training phase of functional movement and resistance training will be working in the anaerobic-endurance training phase of cardiorespiratory training. a. True b. False - correct answer ✔✔b. False While these two phases both represent phase 3 of their respective training components, it is important to understand that each client will progress from one phase to the next according to his or her unique needs, goals, and available time to commit to training. Many clients will be at different phases of the two training components based on their current health and fitness levels.
It is essential that personal trainers conduct assessments of muscular strength and endurance before a new client begins a stability and mobility training program. a. True b. False - correct answer ✔✔b. False No assessments of muscular strength or endurance are required prior to designing and implementing an exercise program during this phase. Assessments that should be conducted early in this phase include basic assessments of posture, balance, movement, and range of motion of the ankle, hip, shoulder complex, and thoracic and lumbar spine. During which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4 - correct answer ✔✔c. Phase 3 During phase 3, or load training, assessments of muscular strength and endurance are introduced to facilitate program design and quantify progress. No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase of cardiorespiratory training. a. True b. False - correct answer ✔✔a. True No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase, since many of the clients who start in this phase will be unfit and may have difficulty completing an assessment of this nature.
b. Long-duration events of a nearly constant speed and intensity c. Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events d. Short-duration, high-intensity events requiring explosive power but little endurance - correct answer ✔✔c. Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events Clients working in this phase of cardiorespiratory training will be training for competition and have specific goals that relate to short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events, such as speeding up to stay with a pack in road cycling. What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele? a. To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes b. To move them through the various phases of the ACE IFT Model with the ultimate goal of improving fitness and performance c. To reach the stage of resistance training during which external loads are introduced, as this will improve their performance of activities of daily living d. To teach them the importance of daily exercise and continuing with their programs even during times of illness or discomfort - correct answer ✔✔a. To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes The most important goal with all clients is to provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes. The first priority when meeting a prospective client is to gather information on the client's goals and objectives. a. True b. False - correct answer ✔✔b. False
The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to first build a foundation for a personal relationship with the individual; gathering information on the client's goals and objectives is secondary. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of a pre-participation screening? a. Identifying the absence or presence of known disease b. Identifying the individual's stage of behavioral change c. Identifying individuals with medical contraindications who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity d. Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs - correct answer ✔✔b. Identifying the individual's stage of behavioral change The purposes of the pre-participation screening include the following: Identifying the presence or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, or signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease Identifying individuals with medical contraindications (health conditions and risk factors) who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity until those conditions have been corrected or are under control Detecting at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation and clinical exercise testing before initiating an exercise program Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs Which of these follow-up actions would be MOST appropriate for an individual who answers "yes" to the following questions on the PAR-Q? Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs (for example, water pills) for your blood pressure or heart condition? In the past month, have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity?
