Answer Key for Final Exam - Introductory Biology I | BIO 311C, Exams of Biology

Material Type: Exam; Professor: Brand; Class: INTRODUCTORY BIOLOGY I; Subject: Biology; University: University of Texas - Austin;

Typology: Exams

2011/2012

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Fall 2011 Final Exam Key p. 1 BIO 311c Brand
BIOLOGY 311c - Brand
Fall 2011
NAME (printed very legibly) _______________KEY____________________ UT-EID __________________
FINAL EXAMINATION
Before beginning, check to be sure that this exam contains 12 pages (including front and back) numbered
consecutively, and that you have been provided with two clean Answer Sheets. Immediately print your name
and UT-EID legibly at the top of this page. Also print and bubble in your name and your UT-EID (not your
social security number) on the front of each Answer Sheet in the spaces provided. The first 65 questions are
“multiple-choice”, with only one correct answer. Mark the letter corresponding to the correct answer to each of
these questions in the appropriate location on the Answer Sheet, using a No. 2 pencil. Write answers to
Questions 66 - 68 directly on this exam, in the spaces provided with the questions. Turn in this exam and the
Answer Sheet after checking to be sure that your name and UTEID is clearly written on this exam, and your
name and UTEID are bubbled in the appropriate places on the Answer sheets. You must turn in your exam on
or before 10:00 p.m.
1. Consider a typical active animal cell. Approximately what portion of the total weight of the cell is expected
to be dry weight?
a. 0.01 %
b. 1 %
c. 35 %
d. 99 %
2. Which one of the following functional groups is most oxidized?
a. Alcohol
b. Carboxylic acid
c. Aldehyde
d. Ketone
3. Approximately what minimal amount of energy must be released in a metabolic reaction in order for some
of the released energy to be captured and used by a cell?
a. 0.43 kJ/mole
b. 5.7 kJ/mole
c. 20 kJ/mole
d. 400 kJ/mole
4. Most metabolic reactions:
a. require making and breaking covalent bonds.
b. are hydrolysis reactions.
c. require substrates to interact directly with DNA.
d. cannot be made to occur outside of a living cell.
5. The respiratory, circulatory and digestive systems function in human respiration by:
a. transporting substrates to and from cells.
b. reducing oxygen to water.
c. carrying enzymes to respiring cells.
d. generating a proton gradient across the plasma membrane between respiring cells and external fluids.
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Download Answer Key for Final Exam - Introductory Biology I | BIO 311C and more Exams Biology in PDF only on Docsity!

BIOLOGY 311c - Brand Fall 2011

NAME (printed very legibly) _______________ KEY ____________________ UT-EID __________________

FINAL EXAMINATION

Before beginning, check to be sure that this exam contains 12 pages (including front and back) numbered consecutively, and that you have been provided with two clean Answer Sheets. Immediately print your name and UT-EID legibly at the top of this page. Also print and bubble in your name and your UT-EID (not your social security number) on the front of each Answer Sheet in the spaces provided. The first 65 questions are “multiple-choice”, with only one correct answer. Mark the letter corresponding to the correct answer to each of these questions in the appropriate location on the Answer Sheet, using a No. 2 pencil. Write answers to Questions 66 - 68 directly on this exam, in the spaces provided with the questions. Turn in this exam and the Answer Sheet after checking to be sure that your name and UTEID is clearly written on this exam, and your name and UTEID are bubbled in the appropriate places on the Answer sheets. You must turn in your exam on or before 10:00 p.m.

  1. Consider a typical active animal cell. Approximately what portion of the total weight of the cell is expected to be dry weight? a. 0.01 % b. 1 % c. 35 % d. 99 %
  2. Which one of the following functional groups is most oxidized? a. Alcohol b. Carboxylic acid c. Aldehyde d. Ketone
  3. Approximately what minimal amount of energy must be released in a metabolic reaction in order for some of the released energy to be captured and used by a cell? a. 0.43 kJ/mole b. 5.7 kJ/mole c. 20 kJ/mole d. 400 kJ/mole
  4. Most metabolic reactions: a. require making and breaking covalent bonds. b. are hydrolysis reactions. c. require substrates to interact directly with DNA. d. cannot be made to occur outside of a living cell.
  5. The respiratory, circulatory and digestive systems function in human respiration by: a. transporting substrates to and from cells. b. reducing oxygen to water. c. carrying enzymes to respiring cells. d. generating a proton gradient across the plasma membrane between respiring cells and external fluids.
  1. Which one of the following serves as a substrate of respiration in both the cytoplasmic matrix and the mitochondrion of eukaryotic cells? a. Acetyl-CoA b. Citric acid c. Pyruvate d. Glucose-6-phosphate
  2. A final product of both respiration and photosynthesis is: a. heat. b. hexose. c. O 2. d. CO 2.
  3. Which one of the following photosynthetic processes occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts without any direct association with chloroplast membranes? a. Light harvesting b. Electron transport c. ATP synthesis d. Calvin cycle
  4. The smallest unit of the living state is considered to be: a. a single tissue that contains identical cells. b. a single cell. c. a membrane-bounded organelle that contains its own DNA. d. a molecule of functional DNA.
  5. The diameter of the smallest living cells is approximately: a. 0.5 nm. b. 20 nm. c. 0.5 μm. d. 20 μm.
  6. All but one of the following is a property of some bacteria. Which one is not characteristic of any bacteria? a. Quarum sensing b. Plasmids c. The ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen d. Centrioles and basal bodies
  7. Ribosomes are an example of a(n): a. membrane-bounded organelle. b. occlusion. c. motor molecule. d. structure that contains DNA.
  8. The largest structure within a typical animal cell is: a. the central vacuole. b. the nucleus. c. a mitochondrion. d. a polysome.
  1. Small molecules or ions that serve as a component of a signal transduction pathway are called: a. G-protein-linked receptors. b. transcription factors. c. kinases. d. second messengers.
  2. The phase of the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells where DNA is replicated is called: a. the S phase. b. G 1. c. prophase. d. cytokinesis.
  3. In which phase in the cell cycle of multicellular eukaryotic organisms does a cell commit to either divide or else begin performing its mature function? a. M b. G 1 c. G 2 d. S
  4. The stage of mitosis when all of the chromosomes line up in one plane, immediately before the separation and migration of chromatids, is: a. prophase. b. metaphase. c. anaphase. d. telophase.
  5. During mitosis, microtubules are attached to chromatids at their: a. telomeres. b. histones. c. kinetochores. d. centrosomes.
  6. The formation of a phragmoplast and cell plate during cell division is a feature of: a. animal cells. b. plant cells. c. prokaryotic cells. d. cells of fungi.
  7. The two major components of chromatin are DNA and:

a. RNA. b. protein. c. carbohydrate. d. lipid.

  1. The number of hydrogen bonds between a GC base pair in DNA is: a. 0. b. 1. c. 2. d. 3.
  1. Which one of the following is true of the function of DNA polymerase that uses DNA as a template, but is not true of the function of RNA polymerase that uses DNA as a template? a. Two high energy phosphate bonds are hydrolyzed for every nucleotide inserted into the growing polynucleotide chain. b. C is one of the inserted nucleotides. c. The polymerase binds only to an existing double strand of polynucleotides. d. The extension of the growing polynucleotide chain is in the 5'-to-3' direction.
  2. The basic unit of function of DNA is a(n): a. nucleotide pair. b. entire polynucleotide chain. c. gene. d. complete single rotation of the double helix.
  3. Anticodons are a component of: a. the DNA plus strand. b. the DNA coding strand. c. mRNA. d. tRNA.
  4. The initial site of binding of RNA polymerase in preparation for transcription is:

a. a structural gene. b. the promoter. c. the operator. d. an enhancer.

  1. Transcription of DNA is terminated in prokaryotic cells when: a. RNA polymerase encounters a polyC sequence on the DNA. b. an intron is encountered by the polymerase. c. the polymerase reaches the 3' end of a DNA molecule. d. the new RNA molecule forms a specific stem-loop structure.
  2. Which one of the following contains a modified-G cap and a poly-A tail? a. Prokaryotic DNA b. Eukaryotic DNA c. Eukaryotic mRNA d. tRNA of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
  3. A tRNA molecule becomes charged by covalently bonding to: a. the small subunit of a ribosome. b. a promoter. c. mRNA. d. an amino acid.
  4. During translation, the anticodon of tRNA is hydrogen bonded to: a. mRNA. b. rRNA. c. snRNA. d. DNA.
  1. A phage is a virus that: a. is enveloped. b. invades prokaryotic cells. c. uses its RNA to synthesize complementary DNA. d. contains single-stranded DNA packaged within a capsid.
  2. Which one of the following consists of the shortest polynucleotide chain? a. A viroid b. An animal virus polynucleotide c. A molecule of chloroplast DNA d. A single human chromosome
  3. The HIV virus becomes a provirus when it is: a. bound to its host cell and is preparing to enter the cell. b. preparing to leave its host cell. c. assimilated into host cell DNA. d. outside of any cell and is completely inert.
  4. Which one of the following polynucleotide-synthesizing enzymes is rather uncommon in nature except in certain kinds of eukaryotic viruses? a. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase b. Reverse transcriptase c. Primase d. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  5. The process of introducing DNA to a host cell through the use of a virus vector is called: a. transformation. b. conjugation. c. transduction. d. concatenation.
  6. Which of the following is not a component of the eukaryotic cell cytoskeleton? a. Microtubules b. Cellulose microfibrils c. Intermediate filaments d. Motor molecules
  7. Which one of the following is a component of typical animal cells, but is not generally found in plant cells? a. Centrioles b. A central vacuole c. Plasmodesmata d. Mitochondria
  8. Consider a mouse cell with a diploid chromosome number of 40 (2n = 40). Then how many chromosomes would occur in a mouse zygote (the cell that is formed by the fusion of a mouse egg and sperm cell)? a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 80
  1. Consider a species of animal with a chromosome number of 2n = 8. One of its cells is undergoing meiosis. It

has just completed meiosis I and undergone cytokinesis, and one of the resulting daughter cells is preparing to enter prophase of meiosis II. How molecules of DNA exist in the daughter cell at the end of meiosis I? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16

  1. When water evaporates, which of the following bonds break?

a. Polar covalent bonds b. Non-polar covalent bonds c. Hydrogen bonds d. Ionic bonds e. Both hydrogen bonds and polar covalent bonds

  1. In plants, at what level of biological organization does photosynthesis occur?

a. Cell level b. Organelle level c. Organism level d. Protein level e. Tissue level

  1. There is a protein suspended in water that contains amino acid “X” which is polar and amino acid “Y”

which is non-polar. Based on this information, what do you predict are the most likely locations of these two amino acids in the protein? a. Amino acids X and Y are equally likely to be at the interior or exterior of the protein. b. Both amino acids X and Y are likely to be on the exterior of the protein. c. Amino acid X is more likely to be in the interior, and amino acid Y more likely to be on the exterior of the protein. d. Amino acid X is more likely to be on the exterior, and amino acid Y is more likely to be in the interior. e. Both amino acids are likely to be in the interior of the protein.

  1. Mature red blood cells are highly specialized. Given this, which of the following would you predict to be

true about mature red blood cells? a. A cell wall to hold more oxygen. b. A high density of mitochondria to use oxygen. c. A low surface to volume ratio to exchange oxygen. d. A greater proportion of volume devoted to oxygen-carrying proteins. e. Flagella to move oxygen rapidly through the blood.

  1. Animal cells were grown in culture providing them only nutrients with radioactive nucleotide building

blocks for DNA. For many generations of cell growth, all the DNA molecules were radioactive. Some of these cells were transferred to new nutrient conditions with only non-radioactive nucleotides and allowed to replicate their DNA thirty times in the presence of only non-radioactive nucleotides. Assuming no crossing over occurs, what results will they see? a. None of the cells will have any radioactive DNA. b. Each of the cells will contain both radioactive DNA and non-radioactive DNA. c. One half of the cells will have all radioactive DNA, the other half of cells will have all non-radioactive DNA. d. Only a few cells will have any radioactive DNA, most will have entirely non-radioactive DNA. e. All of the cells will have radioactive DNA.

  1. A mutation that substitutes a T for an A occurs in the portion of a gene that codes for amino acids. All of the

following except which one could potentially result? a. No change in the amino acid sequence. b. A single amino acid change in the amino acid sequence. c. A shortened protein missing the amino acids downstream. d. No protein will be produced from the messenger RNA e. DNA will not be replicated in the next generation.

  1. Which of the following cells contain a gene that specifies eye color?

a. Only cells in the eye. b. Only cells in the nervous system. c. Gametes (sperm and egg cell). d. Both cells in the eye and gametes. e. All cells in the body.

  1. Each of the descriptions below refers to a process that is required for DNA replication. For each description, select from the list at right the enzyme or other protein that is used for that task, and write the corresponding letter in the space provided.

i. _ E __ Keeps template strands held apart after they have been separated

ii. _ F __ Prevents supercoiling in front of the replication fork

iii. _ D __ Produces an RNA oligonucleotide that is

complementary to a DNA polynucleotide strand.

iv. _ C __ Covalently connects two segments of a DNA polynucleotide strand together

v. _ A __ Inserts deoxyribonucleotides into the growing DNA molecule.

A. Pol III (DNA polymerase III) B Helicase C Ligase D Primase E SSB (single-strand binding protein) F Topoisomerase

  1. Consider a polypeptide chain in which the two N-terminal amino acids are as follows:

Use the genetic code information in the table below to answer the following.

a. In the space below, write a sequence of nucleotides in mRNA that would code for these two amino acids. The 5' end of the sequence should be shown at left.

AUGUAU or AUGUAC

b. In the space below, write the sequence of the plus (sense) strand that corresponds to the sequence that you showed in part a above.

TACATA or TACATG

c. ___ 2 ___ How many anticodons correspond to the codons shown in this sequence.

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