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HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION LATEST UPLOAD, Exams of Advanced Education

Cheyney University of PennsylvaniaAdvanced Education

HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION LATEST UPLOAD

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 01/15/2026

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HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION LATEST
UPLOAD
1. Which of the following is not an employee right under OSHA?: To
shut down a job
you believe is unsafe
2.
A
Safety
Data
Sheet
(SDS)
.:
Must be provided for
chemicals used at a facility
3.
The term "Superfund" is another name for which of the following?:
CERCLA
4. To protect the worker from exposure, which does OSHA indicate
should occur
first?:
Engineering controls
5. Operations that employ workers who must comply with the 29 CFR
1910.120 regulations do not include which of the following? Correct:
Risk analysis of hazardous
chemical releases
6.
Which governmental body is responsible for safety at a
hazardous waste
site?: OSHA
7. Complet
e enclosure of a sandblast operation is an example of
.:
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HAZWOPER FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION LATEST

UPLOAD

  1. Which of the following is not an employee right under OSHA?: To shut down a job you believe is unsafe
  2. A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) .: Must be provided for chemicals used at a facility
  3. The term "Superfund" is another name for which of the following?: CERCLA
  4. To protect the worker from exposure, which does OSHA indicate should occur first?: Engineering controls
  5. Operations that employ workers who must comply with the 29 CFR 1910.120 regulations do not include which of the following? Correct: Risk analysis of hazardous chemical releases
  6. Which governmental body is responsible for safety at a hazardous waste site?: OSHA
  7. Complet e enclosure of a sandblast operation is an example of .:

2 / 44 Engineering controls

  1. Is the use of "common sense" a good practice to protect a worker from exposure to hazards?: False
  2. Using steam cleaning instead of solvent-based cleaning is an example of .: Engineering
  3. Wearing a respirator to remove toxic vapors from your breathing air is an example of which of the following?: PPE
  4. Which of the following is not an element of the Hazard Communication Standard?: Respirator training
  5. Which Act has the primary responsibility for hazardous waste?: Resource Conser- vation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
  6. A vertical standard is specific to a particular industry: True
  7. By identifying lines of authority, communication, and coordination among personnel and managers, the is being defined according to the General Health and Safety Program (HASP).: Organizational Structure
  8. The OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard requires that new employees at haz- ardous waste sites receive which of the following

4 / 44

  1. How many members should the initial site entry team consist of including backup entry personnel?: At least four
  2. Off-site characterization hazard assessment might include which of the fol- lowing?: All answers are correct
  3. Emergency personnel should be on standby only after the initial entry team encounters problems on the site.: False
  4. When should monitoring be conducted at a hazardous waste site?: Upon initial entry to identify and IDLH conditions
  5. Atmospheric monitoring is only required after the workers have entered the site.: False
  6. A change in weather will not affect the hazards at a work site.: False
  7. When locating a Command post, which of the following can have the great- est impact on employee safety?: Wind direction
  8. The Site Health and Safety Plan should contain contingency plans for unpre- dictable events such as fire or physical injury.: True
  9. After the plan for a hazardous waste site is implemented, it should be periodically examined to reflect any site condition changes.: True

5 / 44

  1. The primary purpose of a site health and safety plan is which of the follow- ing?: To ensure the safety and health of workers and responders
  2. Emergencies are not effected by which of the following?: Location of the laboratory
  3. It is the responsibility of the personnel involved at the site to comply with the requirements of the health and safety plan.: True
  4. The best policy is that instructions should be written.: True
  5. Identify the correct order that a site characterization should be conducted;
  6. Conduct an on-site survey, 2. Conduct an off-site survey, 3. Implement programs to ensure the safety of a hazardous waste employee after an on-site evaluation.: 2,1, 3
  7. The results of air monitoring and sampling pertaining to an employee's job .!: Must be made available to the employee
  8. A hazardous waste site plan should be in order to make sure the proce- dures will work in an emergency.: Practiced
  9. At a minimum, emergency response plans for handling and

7 / 44 effects, or would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere.: True

  1. Legally enforceable exposure levels are established by .: OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
  2. TLV is an acronym for .: Threshold limit value
  3. The most common route of entry for exposure to toxic materials in the work place is?!: Inhalation
  4. Which of the factors listed, that affect the response of humans and living organisms to toxic chemicals, is time dependent?: Dose
  5. Acute exposure symptoms may include which of the following?: All answers are correct 49.. A toxic effect described as a severe injury by a one-time short exposure to a harmful chemical is known as: Acute
  6. An additive effect is defined as which of the following?: The addition of toxic chemical ettects in producing a biological ettect
  7. A Synergistic Effect is defined as which of the following?: The exposure

8 / 44 to two ditterent toxic chemicals that produces a more severe ettect than simply doubling the dose of wither one alone

  1. A Potentiation Effect is defined as which of the following?: In some cases, a chemical without any known toxic ettect may act together with a known toxic substance to make the toxic substance even more potent and more dangerous
  2. An Antagonism Effect is defined as which of the following?: The interaction of two toxic chemicals may be such that the ettect produced is actually less than would be expected
  3. Which of the following is common to airborne hazards?: The normally enter the body through breathing
  4. A chemical that deprives the victim's tissues of oxygen is which of the follow- ing?: Asphyxiate
  5. Which exposure route is most likely to cause the immediate response of a burned esophagus to appear?: Ingestion
  6. Ceiling Limit (C) is the level that should never be exceeded in the workplace without correct procedures and protective equipment.: True
  7. How can chemicals enter your bloodstream?: All answers are correct
  8. How much a worker is affected by an exposure to a

10 / 44 and egg cells

    1. The NFPA 704-M system (hazard diamonds) identifies the hazards of ma- terials in terms of excluding the 4th category.: Reactivity, health and flammability
  2. A hazard is defined as which of the following?: The capability of something causing you harm
  3. Risk can be defined as which of the following?: The probability and severity of a hazard
  4. The white section of the NFPA 704-M hazard diamond provides information for which of the following?: Special hazards
  5. The blue section of the NFPA sign designates which hazard?!: Health
  6. The number "4" in the red section of the NFPA sign indicates the material is which of the following?: Extremely flammable
  7. The yellow section of the NFPA sign indicates the material is which of the following?: Reactive
  8. Everyone working in an area that has hazardous substances must recognize and understand the potential health safety hazards involved in their work assignments. Training is required

11 / 44 and documentation of that training is which of the following?: Mandatory

  1. Being struck by an object or moving machine part would be considered as which of the following?!: Kinetic / mechanical hazard
  2. Strong management commitment is a vital part of safety.!: True
  3. Upon arriving at a large warehouse, you notice an NFPA sign. The term "OX" appears in the lower (white) quadrant of that sign. This term indicated that oxy- gen supplying respirator protection must be worn to enter the building.!: False
  4. Noise is always consideration when evaluating hazards.: False
  5. Safe work practices are important in hazardous waste operations.: True
  6. An unsafe condition can also be a physical hazard.: True
  7. A Job Hazard Analysis is performed to determine which of the following?: Un- safe worker conditions
  8. An unsafe condition, such as wet floors or broken equipment, could be described as which of the following?: Physical

13 / 44 to ionizing radia- tion are .: Time, distance, shielding

  1. Radiation detection and monitoring is crucial for all of the reasons below except which one?: Radiation can be detected by the human nose (order)
  2. Some atoms in nature occasionally split (fission) and give off radiation: True
  3. Radiation can be detected and measured with a great deal of precision.: True
  4. A sheet of paper can block what type of radiation?: Alpha

14 / 44

  1. Protection from radiation does not include which of the following?: Isotope half-life
  2. Gamma and X radiation have a LET or QF of 1.: True
  3. Alpha particles have a QF of 20 and are considered as sever external radia- tion hazards.: False
  4. If Level B PPE worn by a worker is contaminated with radiation material that can not be decontaminated then the contaminated Level B PPE can be used in future radiation jobs.: False
  5. A scintillation radiation instrument is used to detect which of the following types of radiation?: X Rays
  6. Electricity generation in the USA using nuclear power plants has provided approximately which of the following percent of the net generation?: 20%
    1. Which of the following is the correct inspection schedule for respirators?- : Before and after each use
  8. What precautionary measures should workers take when using a North half-face air purifying respirator to reduce their risk of

16 / 44

  1. Only your lungs can be damaged when breathing toxic chemicals.: False
  2. It is acceptable to wear a dust mask as protection against spray paint vapors.: False
  3. The primary purpose of quantitative or qualitative fit testing is to identify the specific model, make, and size of respirator that best suites each person.- : False
  4. A person's eyes are better protected by which of the following respirators?- : Full face
  5. Methanol has a TLV of 200 ppm; the odor of methanol is not detected until a concentration of 2000 ppm in air is reached. For protection, the best respirator to wear is which of the following?: A SAR with escape bottle
  6. It is permissible to modify a respirator to make a different brand of cartridge to fit the respirator.: False
  7. Select the incorrect statement relating to respirators.: You must wear contact lenses instead of glasses when wearing any type of respirator

17 / 44

  1. MUC stands for which of the following?: Maximum use concentration
  2. A respirator fit check consisting of covering the cartridge openings and inhaling for 5 to 10 seconds to feel the mask pulling snugly against the face is called a negative pressure fit check.: True
  3. Positive-pressure atmosphere-supplying respirators are designed to main- tain a positive pressure in the facepiece during both inhalation and exhalation.- : True
  4. Chemical "X" has an odor threshold of 150 ppm and a TLV of 75 ppm, what is the significance of this information?: The TLV exposure is reached before you are able to smell the chemical
  5. The monitoring requirements for an employee dressed in Level A PPE re- quire which of the following?: Oral temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, body weight loss (water)
  6. Using Level C personal protective equipment includes which of the follow- ing?!: Wearing an air-purifying respirator
  7. The Level of Protection that provides the highest degree of respiratory and skin protection against gases and vapors is?: Level A

19 / 44

  1. Heat Stress is a concern for workers only in the summer months: False
  2. Which of the following is least likely to make heat stress worse?!: High wind velocity
  3. Knowing the specific hazards involved in the job is important even though you are wearing protective clothing.!: True
  4. Air supply consumption when using a SCBA depends on which of the follow- ing?: Fitness, body size, work rate, breathing pattern
  5. The ensemble of equipment referred to as Level A protection is generally the minimum level recommended for an initial entry until the site hazards have been further identified.!: True
  6. Level D protective ensembles provide no protection to a worker at all.: False
  7. Class C helmets provide protection for which of the following?: Impact hazards, limited chemical
  8. The following protective equipment is required for a worker handling toxic chemicals that when dispensed or handled may splash.: All of the answers are correct

20 / 44

  1. Employers must provide training to employees who are required to use PPE. This training must include all of the following except which of the following?: How to purchase cost-ettective PPE
  2. Safety shoes and boots worn when working in areas where there is a danger of foot injuries must comply with which of the following organization specifications?: ANSI
  3. Class G (formerly A) helmets provide impact and penetration resistance as well as protection from:: Low-voltage electrical hazards (2,200 volts)
  4. Class E (formerly B) helmets can provide electrical protection from high-volt- age conductors and are proof-tested to 20,000 volts.: True
  5. Which three different types of hand hazards can be avoided by wearing hand protection?: Chemical hazards, cut hazards, thermal hazards
  6. Wearing Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) prevents which route of expo- sure to hazardous materials?!: Skin
  7. A correctly designed Health and Safety Plan provides procedures for the selection of PPE or a combination of PPE components (respirator & canister, gloves,