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ONS Practice Test questions latest upload updated version, Exams of Nursing

Cheyney University of PennsylvaniaNursing

ONS Practice Test questions latest upload updated version

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 03/03/2026

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ONS Practice Test questions latest upload
updated version
1.
Which of the following is a primary preventative method to
prevent the development of cancers?
a.
receiving an annual Pap test
b.
perform monthly breast self exam
c. avoid use of tobacco products
d obtain biannual serum tumor marker levels:
2.
A premenopausal patient with metastatic breast cancer is
receiving letrozole. Which other medication is also expected to be
prescribed for ovarian ablation?
a.
degarelix
b.
exemestane
c.
goserelin
d. tamoxifen:
c.
goserelin
Concomitant ovarian ablation with a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonist therapy, such as
goserelin, is
recommended
in
the
adjuvant,
recurrent,
or
metastatic
settings
for
women
with
breast
cancer
who
are
premenopausal.
3. A patient with an insulinoma would be most likely to experience
which of the
following signs and symptoms?
a.
hypoK, aclorhydria, vasoconstriction
b.
glucose interolerance, diarrhea, anemia
c.
abd pain, reflux, vit b6 deficiency
d.
hypoglycemia,
confusion,
vision
changes:
d.
hypoglycemia,
confusion,
vision
changes
4.
4. A patient with esophageal cancer reports cramping and
diarrhea after eating meals. What should the nurse recommend?
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13

Partial preview of the text

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ONS Practice Test questions latest upload

updated version

  1. Which of the following is a primary preventative method to prevent the development of cancers? a. receiving an annual Pap test b. perform monthly breast self exam c. avoid use of tobacco products d obtain biannual serum tumor marker levels:
  2. A premenopausal patient with metastatic breast cancer is receiving letrozole. Which other medication is also expected to be prescribed for ovarian ablation? a. degarelix b. exemestane c. goserelin d. tamoxifen: c. goserelin Concomitant ovarian ablation with a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonist therapy, such as goserelin, is recommended in the adjuvant, recurrent, or metastatic settings for women with breast cancer who are premenopausal.
  3. A patient with an insulinoma would be most likely to experience which of the following signs and symptoms? a. hypoK, aclorhydria, vasoconstriction b. glucose interolerance, diarrhea, anemia c. abd pain, reflux, vit b6 deficiency d. hypoglycemia, confusion, vision changes: d. hypoglycemia, confusion, vision changes
    1. A patient with esophageal cancer reports cramping and diarrhea after eating meals. What should the nurse recommend?

2 / 19 a. chewing thoroughly b. drinking at least 20oz of water during meals c. decreasing dietary protein intake d. eating small, freqeunt meals: d. eating small, freqeunt meals aka prevent dumping syndrome

    1. What is the absolute neutrophil count for a patient who has a white blood cell count of 500/mm3 with 32% polysegmented neutrophils and 7% bands? a. 100/mm b. 125/mm c. 195/mm d. 223/mm3: c. 195/mm The absolute neutrophil count can be calculated by adding polysegmented neutrophils and bands, converting to a percentage, and multiplying by the white blood cell count (0.32 +0.07 = 0.39) x 500 = 195/mm3.
    1. A patient with cancer receiving palliative services reports poor sleep, fatigue, and frequently feeling worried. Which medication should the nurse expect to be prescribed for the patient? a. miratazapine b. diphenhydramine c. citalopram d. methylphenidate: c. citalopram The symptoms described are consistent with generalized anxiety. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, such as citalopram, are considered first-line for the management of generalized anxiety disorder.
    1. The nurse is assessing a patient with an ileostomy. The peristomal skin is erythematous, excoriated, and bleeding. Which of the following complications should the nurse first suspect? a. stenosis requiring revision b. improper pouch fit c. increased output over baseline

4 / 19 a. septic shock b. cardiac tamponade c. tumor lysis syndrome d. malignant bowel obstruction: a. septic shock Patients with sepsis present with signs of infection, including leukocytosis, hypotension, fever, and tachycardia.

    1. A patient with breast cancer has been receiving paclitaxel and would like to have a manicure. What instructions should the patient receive? a. soak hands in a 50% bleach soultion for 20 mins b. ask for a prescription for a prophylactic antibiotic c. apply artifical nails using a strong adhesive d. use a non acetone polish remover: d. use a non acetone polish remover Non-acetone polish remover will be gentler on the nail, maintaining healthy structure.
    1. A patient who has been treated with whole-brain radiation reports a new onset of headaches, photophobia, nausea and confusion. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing: a. hypercalcemia b. sepsis c. increased intracranial pressure d. tumor lysis syndrome: c. increased intracranial pressure Symptoms of increased intracranial pressure include headaches, nausea and vomiting, and photophobia.
    1. A patient with an increased risk of hypercalcemia should be taught to: a. decrease fluid intake to less than 3L per day b. limit intake of dietary sodium c. avoid use of thiazide diuretics d. minimize weight bearing activities while receiving chemo: c. avoid

5 / 19 use of thiazide diuretics A patient with an increased risk of hypercalcemia should avoid taking thiazide diuretics as these may increase serum calcium levels.

    1. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse check prior to administering a dose of zoledronic acid to a patient with hypercalcemia of malignancy? a. creatinine b. sodium c. potassium d. uric acid: a. creatinine Renal toxicity is a side ettect of zoledronic acid. A serum creatinine must be monitored prior to each infusion of zoledronic acid.
    1. The intracellular destruction of a microbe is facilitated through which type of immunity? a. innate b. humoral c. cell mediated d. autoimmunity: c. cell mediated Cell-mediated immunity promotes the intracellular destruction of microbes.
    1. The nurse explains to a patient who had a gastrectomy five days ago that a swallow study is performed to: a. verify absence of an anastomic leak b. ensure tolerance of a general diet c. confirm all the surgical margins are clear d. check for any obstructions: a. verify absence of an anastomic leak Approximately five days after a gastrectomy, a swallow study will be completed to exclude an anastomotic leak.
    1. The nurse should instruct a patient to use barrier contraception to protect the sexual partner with which of the following medications?

7 / 19 taught to: a. use mouthwashes with an alcohol containing base b. avoid foods that are spicy, acidic, or rough in texture c. use a firm bristled toothbrush at least 4 times a day d. delay needed dental work until the completion of therapy: b. avoid foods that are spicy, acidic, or rough in texture

    1. A patient who received a Whipple procedure should expect to receive a prescription for which of the following medications prior to discharge? a. cholestyramine b. docusate sodium c. pancrealipase d. octreotide: c.. pancrealipase Pancreatic enzymes are administered before meals to assist in fat absorption.
    1. A patient with cancer receiving end-of-life care asks why transmucosal fentanyl has been prescribed. The nurse explains that transmucosal fentanyl: a. has been reported to provide the best long-acting pain control. b. has been shown to achieve the fastest relief of breakthrough pain. c. is less aggressive than morphine, but able to provide the same effect. d. is best used during the evening hours to provide relief throughout the night. Reveal Rationale and Reference: b. has been shown to achieve the fastest relief of breakthrough pain.
    1. A patient is 160 cm tall and weighs 70 kg and is ordered oxaliplatin 70 mg/m2 IV. What is the total dose of oxaliplatin that this patient will receive? a. 267 mg b. 123mg c. 88mg d. 204mg: b. 123mg

8 / 19

    1. A patient with hepatocellular carcinoma presents with gastrointestinal bleeding. The nurse suspects this is most likely to be the result of: a. cholelithiasis b. splenic dysfunction c. portal hypertension d. lymphadema: c. portal hypertension
    1. Carcinoma in situ indicates that there is which of the following features? a. Poor prognosis due to the cell type observed b. Poor differentiation of lymphoid cells c. Distant metastasis that will require further surgery d. Abnormal cells without spread to nearby tissue: d. abnormal cells without spread to nearby tissue Carcinoma in situ is not actually the presence of cancer, but abnormal cells with the potential of becoming cancer.
    1. A patient experiencing spinal cord compression to the lumbar-sacral area is most likely to exhibit which of the following signs and symptoms? a. dyspnea & increased pain above the level of the tumor b. paralysis, incontinence and lower back pain c. flaccidity, chest pain and a positive babinski reflex d. a headache, shoulder and arm pain: b. paralysis, incontinence and lower back pain
    1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a hazardous medication and daily dialysis. The nurse should teach the dialysis nurse to: a. wear appropriate PPE b. follow standard precautions c. add an additional treatment cycle to the patient's treatment d. refuse to dialyze the patient until the treatment is completed: a. wear appropriate PPE

10 / 19 c. Let's practice discussing your concerns with your spouse." d. Do not worry, things will look better in a few weeks.": c. Let's practice discussing your concerns with your spouse."

    1. A patient with small cell lung cancer reports a weight gain of 4 kg over the past four days with a decrease in appetite and muscle cramps. The patient's serum sodium level is 128 mEq/L and potassium is 3.6 mEq/L. The nurse suspects the patient is exhibiting signs of: a. cardiac tamponade b. SIADH c. tumor lysis syndrome d. superior vena cava syndrome: b. SIADH Patients with small cell lung cancer may display symptoms of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone including weight gain, nausea, anorexia, and muscle cramps.
    1. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for the prevention of colon cancer? a. age b. increasing the consumption of veggies c. gender d. limit exposure to secondhand smoke: b. increasing the consumption of veggies A diet rich in fruits and vegetables is a modifiable factor for decreasing the risk of developing colon cancer.
    1. Which of the following offers the best rationale of the use of a compres- sion garment for a patient with lymphedema? a. preventing the accumulation of lymph in the soft tissue b. increasing the transit time of venous return c. helpign to keep the blood flowing back to the heart d. maintaining lymph nodes in the proper location after a mastectomy: a. prevent- ing the accumulation of lymph in the soft tissue
    1. The majority of deaths in patients diagnosed with cancer are caused by: a. cerebral edema

11 / 19 b. secondary infections c. cardiovascular dysfunction d. organ metastasis: d. organ metastasis

    1. A patient receiving an aromatase inhibitor has an increased risk of developing which late effect? a. peripheral neuropathy b. pericarditis c. osteoporosis d. metabolic syndrome: c. osteoporosis
    1. A patient with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma who received chemotherapy five days ago is experiencing muscle cramps, diarrhea and lethargy. Which of the following conditions is the patient most likely experiencing? a. superior vena cava syndrome b. SIADH c. tumor lysis syndrome d. malignant hypertension: c. tumor lysis syndrome Symptoms of tumor lysis syndrome include muscle cramps, diarrhea and lethargy; usually developing within the first few days of a cycle of chemotherapy.
    1. A patient's implanted vascular access device flushes without difficulty, but does not yield a blood return. What should the nurse do first? a. Contact the physician immediately to obtain an order for a declotting med- ication. b. Re-access the implanted vascular access device with a new needle. c. Ask the patient to reposition by raising the hands up and coughing. d. Instill low-dose heparin and withdraw this medication after one hour.: c. Ask the patient to reposition by raising the hands up and coughing. the patient should reposition in an attempt to change the intrathoracic pressure, so that a blood return can be achieved.

13 / 19 neurotoxicity can occur with high doses of cytarabine. Neurologic and cerebellar functioning should be assessed before each dose.

    1. The nurse should teach a patient who is scheduled to begin treatment with neratinib about the risk of which of the following side effects? a. weight gain secondary to fluid retention b. significant diarrhea requiring loperamide c. sudden death secondary to QTc prolongation d. pulmonary fibrosis requiring regular CXRs: b. significant diarrhea requiring loperamide
    1. A patient received daratumumab three months ago and is scheduled to receive a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Initiate an infusion of 5% dextrose in water through a 20 gauge peripheral IV catheter. b. Notify the transfusion center of the patient's medication history. c. Administer diphenhydramine and acetaminophen immediately. d. Obtain verbal consent from the patient for the blood transfusion.: b. Notify the transfusion center of the patient's medication history. A positive Coombs test may occur up to six months following the administration of daratumumab. It is necessary to notify the transfusion center that the patient has received this medication.
    1. Prior to initiating an infusion of arsenic trioxide, the nurse should ensure which of the following? a. Qtc interval is > 500 milliseconds b. serum K is > 4mEq/L c. order indicates the duration of the infusion is 30 mins d. baseline pulmonary function testing results are documented: b. serum K is > 4mEq/L Potassium should be monitored and corrected prior to an infusion of arsenic trioxide.
    1. Which of the following offers the best definition of a

14 / 19 biosimilar medica- tion? a. A similar medication that is unable to guarantee the same amount of safety.

16 / 19 b. reactive anxiety c. cognitive impairment d. suspicion of the treatment: b. reactive anxiety

    1. What should the nurse do to best promote the positive body image of a patient who received a bilateral neck dissection with a partial mandibulecto-

17 / 19 my? a. Be present the first time the patient looks in the mirror. b. Allow the patient to refuse care from the staff. c. Avoid eye contact so as not to make the patient feel self-conscious. d. Tell the patient to refrain from wearing makeup or shaving.: a. Be present the first time the patient looks in the mirror.

  1. Nursing interventions for the management of nausea include encouraging patients to: a. use spicy sauces and gravies. b. eat high-protein and high-potassium foods. c. consume more frequent meals with small portions. d. avoid brushing their teeth when they are nauseated.: c. consume more frequent meals with small portions.
  2. Which of the following is prescribed for a patient diagnosed with surgically unresectable renal cell carcinoma that has metastasized to the liver? a. Cetuximab b. Fluorouracil c. Nilotinib d. Temsirolimus: d. Temsirolimus
  3. Initial treatment of a patient with cancer experiencing early sepsis includes the administration of IV: a. vasopressors. b. antibiotics. c. antifungals. d. immunoglobulins.: b. antibiotics. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated soon after obtaining blood cultures for a patient with suspected sepsis.
  4. An example of adaptive or specific immunity is: a. a cell-mediated response. b. an inflammatory response.

19 / 19

  1. A patient with a life expectancy of five months is worried about using the Medicare Hospice Benefit because of increasing financial concerns. The nurse knows that the benefit includes providing: a. admission in a clinical trial. b. durable medical equipment. c. transportation for radiation treatments. d. respite care lasting more than seven days.: b. durable medical equipment. The Medicare Hospice Benefit includes coverage for durable medical equipment necessary for the management of the terminal illness.