MDC IV exam1 updated version latest upload, Exams of Nursing

MDC IV exam1 updated version latest upload

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2025/2026

Available from 06/09/2026

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MDC IV exam1 updated version latest upload
1. *A client with a left middle cerebral artery ischemic stroke 2 days
ago is experiencing a visual field deficit. Which nursing intervention
is best to ensure
client
safety?:
Place the call light on the client's left side
2. *A client with a traumatic brain injury is at risk for venous
thromboembolism
(VTE). Which actions should the nurse take? SATA: -
Administer anticoagulant therapy as
prescribed.
-Reposition
client
in
bed
every
2
hours.
-Apply
sequential
compression
devices
(SCDs)
3.
A client has a comminuted fracture of T6-T7, resulting in
paraplegia. The nurse educates the client on preventing autonomic
dysreflexia. Which of the
following is the priority intervention to avoid
this medical emergency?: Preventing
bladder distension
4. A patient with a coup-contrecoup injury reports vision
problems. Which brain area is most likely involved?:
Occipital lobe
5. A patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) is exhibiting signs of
increased intracranial pressure (ICP). How should you apply
evidence-based care to
prioritize this patient's needs?:
Position the head of bed at
thirty degrees to promote venous drainage
6. Which orders should the nurse anticipate for immediate
treatment of the
stroke client? SATA: -Peripheral IV access
I-ntravenous
labetalol
-Intravenous
alteplase
-Continuous
cardiac
monitoring
-Swallow
evaluation
-Aspiration
precautions
7.
After a middle cerebral artery stroke, a patient shows difficulty
understand-
ing spoken words. Which brain area is most likely
compromised?: Wernicke's area
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MDC IV exam1 updated version latest upload

  1. *A client with a left middle cerebral artery ischemic stroke 2 days ago is experiencing a visual field deficit. Which nursing intervention is best to ensure client safety?: Place the call light on the client's left side
  2. *A client with a traumatic brain injury is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which actions should the nurse take? SATA: - Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed. -Reposition client in bed every 2 hours. -Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs)
  3. A client has a comminuted fracture of T6-T7, resulting in paraplegia. The nurse educates the client on preventing autonomic dysreflexia. Which of the following is the priority intervention to avoid this medical emergency?: Preventing bladder distension
  4. A patient with a coup-contrecoup injury reports vision problems. Which brain area is most likely involved?: Occipital lobe
  5. A patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) is exhibiting signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). How should you apply evidence-based care to prioritize this patient's needs?: Position the head of bed at thirty degrees to promote venous drainage
  6. Which orders should the nurse anticipate for immediate treatment of the stroke client? SATA: -Peripheral IV access I-ntravenous labetalol -Intravenous alteplase -Continuous cardiac monitoring -Swallow evaluation -Aspiration precautions
  7. After a middle cerebral artery stroke, a patient shows difficulty understand-ing spoken words. Which brain area is most likely compromised?: Wernicke's area

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  1. A client with MS has new onset of sharp shooting pain in the face triggered by brushing the teeth. What do you do?: Change to soft bristle toothbrush and encourage gentle oral hygiene
  2. A client with a traumatic brain injury is at risk for developing increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which actions should the nurse take to maintain ICP within normal range? SATA: -Monitor arterial blood gas values to assess the adequacy of ventilation. -Monitor neurological status using the Glasgow Coma Scale. -Elevate the head of the bed at least 30 degrees.
  3. A client with a recent history of head trauma is exhibiting episodes of disorientation and restlessness. Which condition is the client most likely ex-periencing?: delirium
  4. A client has experienced a seizure in which they became rigid and then ex-perienced alternating muscle relaxation and contraction. What type of seizure does the nurse recognize?: Generalized seizure
  5. client w/ history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, atrial fibrillation, hypothy-roidism, & 30-year smoking history presents to the emergency department w/ sudden onset left-sided weakness, left facial droop, & slurred speech that began an hour ago. client is tachycardic w/ a regular rhythm. Lung sounds
  • clear bilaterally w/ no dyspnea. Abdomen soft, round, and nontender w/ active bowel sounds. client is evaluated for cerebrovascular accident versus transient ischemic attack. A 12- lead EKG is performed at 1000, IV labetalol is given @ 1015, & a head CT at 1030 confirms ischemic stroke w/ no evidence of bleeding. Client is transferred to the progressive care unit at 1130, placed in high Fowler's position, alert and interacting w/ family, w/ the call light & bed in a low position. At 1600, client has decreased level of consciousness, restless-ness, irritability, and inappropriate responses to questions & headache: The patient is experiencing increased

4 / 18 emer-gency department for cerebrovascular accident versus transient ischemic attack. 1000-12-lead EKG prescribed and performed showing atrial fibrillation 1015-IV labetalol is administered. 1030 Head CT confirms ischemic stroke and rules out any evidence of bleeding.Vital Signs: 2/6 Time Blood Pressure Heart Rate Respiratory Rate Temperature SpO2 0900 198/94 118 20 99. F 98% RA 1045 175/90 110 18 99.2 F 98% RA: Intravenous alteplase

  1. Bell's Palsy interventions: Tape your eye shut at night and use eye drops during the day
  2. A client with Multiple Sclerosis is experiencing a relapse, they have new symptoms, how do we treat exacerbation?: Steroid therapy (IV methylprednisolone)
  3. A herniated lumbar disc patient is scheduled for a microdiscectomy, what is the postop care?: Log roll the patient
  4. A patient with Parkinson's presents with a new onset of weakness and fatigue, which is suggestive of post-polio syndrome. What should the nurse evaluate?: Help with their ability to perform ADLs
  5. A patient with a Supratentorial lesion has early signs and symptoms of increased ICP, what assessment requires immediate intervention?: Extraocular movement, pupils dilated on the unattected side
  6. A nurse is caring for a client with herpes simplex encephalitis. Which actions should the nurse take in planning care for this client? SATA: -Monitor the client for the development of seizures. -Administer intravenous acyclovir slowly over one hour. -Maintain bedrest and avoid activity
  7. Education for an epileptic patient going home?: do not discontinue medication
  8. A nurse is educating a client with epilepsy on lifestyle modifications to prevent seizure activity. Which recommendations should the nurse include? SATA: -Avoid alcoholic beverages and other seizure triggers. -Do not abruptly stop taking your anticonvulsant medications.

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  1. A client with a history of epilepsy is being discharged home. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?: Maintain a consistent medication schedule to keep drug levels constant
  2. A client is admitted with a sudden onset of right-sided weakness and slurred speech resulting from a left hemispheric ischemic stroke. Which nurs-ing intervention is most appropriate to prevent complications?: Assist with passive range-of-motion exercises to the attected side.
  3. Caring for a patient with hypertension and diabetes, admitted with the sudden onset of right-sided weakness, slurred speech, due to a left-sided ischemic stroke. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse? SATA: -CT scan -blood sugar
  • NPO -prevent contractures
  1. A clinic nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with migraine headaches. During the client teaching session, the client questions the nurse regarding alcohol consumption. What would the nurse be correct in telling the client about the effects of alcohol?: Alcohol causes vasodilation of blood vessels. (increased ICP)
  2. A client presents to the emergency department after a fall, and a CT scan reveals a subdural hematoma. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?: Sudden deterioration in level of consciousness and focal neurologic deficits. (Assess LOC, focal and neurological deficits)
  3. A recent stroke patient is undergoing a motor functional assessment, when they attempt to hold both arms with palms up, one arm drifts.: Opposite lesion
  4. Major concern of myasthenia gravis?: Respiratory
  5. A client presents with a history of seizures and is scheduled for an EEG. The nurse notes that the client consumed coffee and cola

7 / 18 experiencing increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?: Administer mannitol as prescribed

  1. While performing a neurological assessment on a stroke patient, a nurse observes a decline in the patient's condition. What immediate action should the nurse take?: Notify the physician immediately using SBAR
  2. A nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. The patient mentions they ate a light breakfast that morning. Which action should the nurse take to apply evidence-based safety strategies during the perioperative phase?: Notify the provider in anticipation of delaying the procedure.
  3. A client with a brain tumor is scheduled for supratentorial surgery. Which preoperative medication would be most appropriate to reduce the risk of postoperative complications of seizures?: Phenytoin
  4. A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to the pediatric clinic due to episodes of frequent staring spells. The mother reports the child suddenly stops activity, stares blankly for several seconds, and then resumes normal behavior. The child is unaware that the episodes occur. The teacher reports these episodes happen multiple times a day during class.: Order an electroencephalo-gram (EEG) -indicated Initiate antiseizure medication - indicated Increase dosage of antiseizure medication - not indicated Hold current antiseizure medication - Not indicated Provide caregiver education and counseling- indicated
  5. which cranial nerve tests smell: olfactory- CN I
  6. which cranial nerve tests Vision: optic- CN II
  7. which cranial nerve tests Eye movement, pupil response: Oculomotor/Trochlear/Ab-ducens- CN III, IV, VI
  8. which cranial nerve tests Facial sensation, jaw movement:

8 / 18 Trigeminal- CN V

  1. which cranial nerve tests Facial expressions, taste: Facial- CN VII
  2. which cranial nerve tests Hearing, balance: Vestibulocochlear- CN VIII
  3. which cranial nerve tests Gag, swallow, voice quality: Glossopharyngeal/Vagus- CN IX/X
  4. which cranial nerve tests Shoulder shrug: Spinal Accessory- CN XI
  5. which cranial nerve tests Tongue movement: Hypoglossal- CN XII
  6. what would a glasgow coma scale of <8 indicate: coma
  7. what are late signs of cerebral edema and ICP: Cushing's Triad, ‘SBP with widening pulse pressure, “HR (BRADYCARDIA), Irregular respirations, Posturing: decorticate (hands inward at chest) or decerebrate (hands inward at sides)
  8. what are early signs of cerebral edema and ICP: Decreased LOC (first and most sensitive), Headache, Pupillary changes (sluggish or unequal), Visual changes, Vomiting (not preceded by nausea), Restlessness, irritability
  9. what is apasia: speech impairment
  10. which area of the brain is likely affected when a stroke patient is experienc-ing aphsia: left frontal or temporal lobe
  11. which area of the brain is likely affected when a stroke patient is showing signs od neglect/ impulse control: Right parietal lobe
  12. which area of the brain is likely affected when a stroke patient is experienc-ing ataxia: Cerebellum
  13. which area of the brain is likely affected when a stroke patient is experienc-ing vision loss: Occipital lobe
  14. Agnosia: inability to recognize objects
  15. Dysphagia: diflculty swallowing
  16. Hemianopsia: half visual field loss
  17. Ataxia: loss of muscle coordination
  18. what is a hemorrhagic stroke: bleeding into brain tissue
  19. common causes of hemorrhagic stroke: HTN, aneurysm rupture, AVM, trauma, anticoagulant use

10 / 18 drainage from nose/ears—priority teaching?: Wipe the nose/ears, but do not blow the nose or place anything in the ear

  1. Guillain-Barre history clue: Which statement correlates with Guillain-Barre syndrome?: : "I just got over the flu a couple of weeks ago and now this."
  2. Embolic stroke + echo: Client asks why they need a heart test after embolic stroke—best response?: Most of these types of blood clots come from the heart
  3. tPA contraindication priority: Ischemic stroke client cannot have fibrinolytic therapy until which vital sign is addressed?: Blood pressure 220/

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  1. Glasgow Coma Scale components: GCS identifies 3 areas of assessment as which of the following?: : Eye-opening, best motor response, verbal response
  2. Motorcycle accident with increased ICP—most significant sign?: Decreased level of consciousness
  3. Which finding is congruent with the postictal state?: The client's motor function is returning to baseline
  4. High potassium pre-op: Client due to receive general anesthesia has K+ 5.8 mEq/L. Nurse first response?: Notify the surgeon
  5. Client cannot wrinkle forehead or pucker lips, stroke ruled out—discharge teaching on which disorder?: Bell's palsy
  6. Craniotomy/hematoma: Which intervention decreases threat of increased intracranial pressure after craniotomy?: Elevate head of bed 30 degrees
  7. Basilar skull fracture halo sign: Nurse notes halo sign drainage—what should nurse do next?: Check for presence of glucose in drainage and report to provider
  8. Which type of anesthesia requires both inhalation and IV administration?- : General anesthesia
  9. Client says "I didn't understand but I trust him." Best nurse response?: "I need to contact your surgeon so your questions can be answered."
  10. : Loss of ability to recognize familiar objects/people through sensory stim-ulation is?: Agnosia
  11. Dysphagia swallowing intervention: Stroke client dysphagia (esp liquids). Best intervention?: Instruct the client to tuck the chin when swallowing
  12. healthcare team considering tPA. What must nurse do first?: Identify the time of onset of the stroke
  13. Nurse witnesses a seizure—priority action?: Place the client on their side (left-lateral position)
  14. Post-stroke expressive aphasia—best nursing intervention

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  1. Before CT scan with contrast, nurse should assess for which complication?- : Allergy to iodine/seafood
  2. Which statement indicates need for further teaching about PCA?: I can push the button for my mother if she is too drowsy
  3. Post-op client—intervention to minimize venous stasis?: Early ambulation
  4. Client received lorazepam 20 min ago—priority safety intervention?: Raise bed rails
  5. Stroke client CT reveals hemorrhage—anticipated directive?: Prep client for surgery
  6. Guillain-Barre priority risk: GBS client most at risk for which body system failure?: Respiratory
  7. Malignant hyperthermia signs: Surgery client develops tachycardia, di-aphoresis, rising temperature—priority intervention?: Alert anesthesiologist and surgeon immediately
  8. Cervical spinal cord injury priority: ED client has cervical spinal cord in-jury—priority assessment?: Respiratory status and airway patency
  9. Increased ICP intervention: Head injury client—intervention that reduces intracranial pressure?: Keep the neck in neutral position to promote venous drainage
  10. Bradykinesia teaching: Parkinson's client statement shows understand-ing?: I need to allow extra time to complete activities
  11. Informed consent purpose: Which is true about informed consent?: It is a way to ensure client safety
  12. Bilateral lower extremity numbness progressing upward— immediate workup for which disease?: Guillain-Barre syndrome
  13. Evisceration intervention: Wound evisceration—what intervention is im-mediate?: Apply a warm, moist normal saline sterile dressing
  14. Tonic-clonic seizure rest phase: After tonic-clonic seizure, rest is called what?: Postictal period

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  1. Red emesis post-op: Which post-op symptom is abnormal and should be reported immediately?: Emesis that is red
  2. Parkinson's respiratory prevention: Which intervention helps prevent res-piratory complications in Parkinson's disease?: Maintain head of bed at 30 degrees or greater

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  1. Which manifestation indicates Parkinson's disease?: Propulsive forward movement
  2. Loss of consciousness, incontinence, brief breathing cessation, postictal state—what seizure type?: Tonic-clonic seizure

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  1. Which task should NOT be delegated to UAP?: Administer the client's antipsychotic medication
  2. What are the 3 components of Cushing's response?: Widened pulse pressure; Brady-cardia; Increased systolic blood pressure
  3. Preop teaching understood: Which response shows understanding of pre-op teaching?: I may experience constipation if I am taking much pain medication after surgery.
  4. Epilepsy precautions (SATA): Which precaution ensures safety while hospi-talized?: Have suction equipment at the bedside
  5. Which actions promote safe feeding practices? SATA: Otter small bites Check attected side of mouth for food pocketing Add thickening agent to liquids
  6. To promote venous return from lower extremity, what should client do? SATA: Bend knees and push feet into bed Flex hip/knee and rotate lower leg laterally Tighten gluteal muscles
  7. Which findings indicate moderate Alzheimer stage? SATA: Wandering Anger Incontinence of bowel/bladder Visuospatial deficits
  8. Which are late manifestations of increased ICP?: Increased systolic blood pressure Bradycardi a Blown pupils
  9. Closed head injury ICP 16-22 mm Hg—what action decreases potential ICP rise?: Decrease noise in the client's room
  10. Delegation for abdominal surgery prep (SATA) What can nurse delegate to UAP?: Vital signs
  11. Which foods may worsen headaches and should be avoided? SATA: Catteine; Wine