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In order to become a successful emergency telecommunicator, a combination of the following is required: a. Training and temperament. b. Vision and values. c. Time and interest. - correct answer a. Training and temperament. If a field unit needs a certain type of assistance, it is usually up to that field unit to locate, notify, and coordinate the additional resources. a. True b. False - correct answer b. False The IAED (the Academy) enforces its Code of Ethics by withholding or revoking the certifications of those who fail to agree to, or uphold, these standards. a. True b. False - correct answer a. True When faced with an ethical dilemma in the communication center, the ETC should FIRST: a. Ask the nearest coworker for help. b. Consult his or her attorney. c. Follow established protocol, procedure, and policy. d. Follow his or her instincts. - correct answer c. Follow established protocol, procedure, and policy. A procedure that has been highly defined, structured, and placed into a reference system known as a: a. Protocol b. Guideline c. Logarithm
d. Policy - correct answer a. Protocol In the course, the "three P's" refer to: a. Politeness, privilege, and politics b. Professionalism, priority, and public service c. Protocol, procedure, and policy d. Party (of caller), Pre-Arrival Instructions, and Post-Dispatch Instructions - correct answer c. Protocol, procedure, and policy Wireless internet devices (such as smart phones) connect to the internet using: a. Fiber-optic cables. b. Wi-Fi. c. Copper wires. d. Operators. - correct answer b. Wi-Fi. Cell phone networks are divided into specific areas called cells, each with its own: a. Internet server b. Antenna c. Cell phone company/provider d. Wi-Fi router - correct answer b. Antenna Prior to the development of emergency number technology, either the caller or the operator had to try to figure out which agency or department emergency calls should go to, based on the caller's location. a. True b. False - correct answer a. True What does the acronym TDD stand for? a. Telecommunications device for the deaf b. Telecommunicator dial-up dispatch c. Text to dispatch data
d. how the message is conveyed. - correct answer d. how the message is conveyed. In the context of the communication process, "noise" can occur when you are thinking about something else and essentially blocking out most or all of an incoming message. a. true b. false - correct answer a. true Diction refers to: a. the choice of words and phrases used to communicate. b. the speed at which we talk. c. producing the sounds of speech, including articulation and intonation. d. the high and low notes produced during speech. - correct answer a. the choice of words and phrases used to communicate. It is good practice for ETCs to try to impress callers by using specialized language. a. true b. false - correct answer b. false Active listening requires the ETC to tune out distractions and focus on the caller's message. a. true b. false - correct answer a. true ETCs are morally, and in many cases legally, obligated to: a. Work overtime. b. Always stay on the line with the caller until responders arrive. c. Ensure confidentiality of intimate/sensitive information about the caller/patient/victim. d. Inform the news media when a significant incident has been reported by a caller.
Explaining to a caller what is happening and why should be avoided because it wastes valuable time and increases response times. a. true b. false - correct answer b. false Given any specific type of incident, there must be no difference in: a. the level of service that each calltaker in the agency provides. b. response times. c. the calltaker's pitch/inflection. d. the caller's responses to the calltaker's questions. - correct answer a. the level of service that each calltaker in the agency provides.
The hysteria threshold refers to: a. Callers who don't act on their reflexive reactions during stressful events b. Defensive actions taken by calltakers who have been offended by a caller c. The point at which a caller loses control over her/his actions and emotions d. Callers who have calmed down and suddenly become emotional again - correct answer c. The point at which a caller loses control over her/his actions and emotions When using the repetitive persistence technique, the calltaker should: a. Repeat a statement verbatim using a firm but caring tone b. Ask the caller to repeat each statement c. Resist the temptation to ask the caller to do something more than once d. Repeat each question asked at least once - correct answer a. Repeat a statement verbatim using a firm but caring tone When an ETC is having trouble communicating with a caller who primarily speaks a foreign language, the ETC should: a. Talk louder b. Ask the caller to repeat the information c. Obtain foreign language support, if available - correct answer c. Obtain foreign language support, if available When communicating with a caller suffering from hallucinations or delusions, you should challenge the caller's false assertions and beliefs. a. True b. False - correct answer b. False One effective technique for reducing the negative effect of calltaking gaps is to: a. Fill the gap with music or casual conversation b. Tell the caller what you are doing and why c. Ignore the gaps-the caller won't be anxious about them if you're not d. Tell the caller to just keep talking - correct answer b. Tell the caller what you are doing and why
Emergency number calls can be broadly classified into requests for which three types of services? a. In-progress, just-occurred, and past-event b. Law enforcement/police, fire/rescue, and emergency medical service (EMS) c. Call classification, protocol, and time categories d. ECHO, DELTA and CHARLIE - correct answer b. Law enforcement/police, fire/rescue, and emergency medical service (EMS) The priority level of a call is determined by: a. Emergency telecommunicators b. The number of people involved in the incident c. Protocol, procedure, and policy d. The caller - correct answer c. Protocol, procedure, and policy Law enforcement/police situations tend to be dynamic in nature. a. True b. False - correct answer a. True Law enforcement/police calls are sorted into which three categories based on the time of occurrence? a. Call classification, protocol, and procedures b. In progress, just occurred, and past event c. Law enforcement/police, fire/rescue, and emergency medical service (EMS) d. Anticipated, just missed, and assumed - correct answer b. In progress, just occurred, and past event For many law enforcement/police calls, the most important characteristics of the event is: a. How upset the caller is b. How cooperative the caller is
c. An irrational need to avoid people and noise d. Poor cognitive ability and reoccurring chest pain - correct answer b. Bizarre and aggressive behavior Perhaps more than any other service, fire/rescue responses depend on: a. Fast call processing b. Excellent customer service c. Accurate call classification d. Efficient emergency telecommunicators - correct answer c. Accurate call classification Fire/rescue situations are unlikely to worse before responders arrive. a. True b. False - correct answer b. False Which term refers to a mobile unit that responds to the scene of a fire/rescue incident? a. Command Vehicle b. Equipment c. HAZMAT/HAZCHEM d. Apparatus - correct answer d. Apparatus Call classification involves sorting and prioritizing calls for service based on incident type and urgency. a. True b. False - correct answer a. True The Incident Command System (ICS) is a standardized and hierarchical approach to the: a. Dispatching of emergency fire/rescue responders b. Command, control, and coordination of emergency response
c. Fear and anticipation of the spread or structure fires d. Computer-aided dispatch of fire/rescue vehicles - correct answer b. Command, control, and coordination of emergency response The basic fire apparatus has a self-contained pump used for pumping water through hoses to extinguish the fire is called a/an: a. Engine or pumper b. Brush truck c. Command or communication vehicle d. Tanker or airtanker - correct answer a. Engine or pumper Airports typically have their own on-site fire/rescue response. a. True b. False - correct answer a. True An incident requiring HAZMAT response involves: a. A nonemergency request for assistance b. An electrical hazard without fire present c. A rapidly growing forest fire d. The release or escape of hazardous materials - correct answer d. The release or escape of hazardous materials A vehicle fire inside a home garage should be classified as a vehicle fire. a. True b. False - correct answer b. False Which of the following incidents is an example of a high mechanism vehicle collision? a. A fender bender between two vehicles b. Any collision involving HAZMAT c. A rollover with a possible death at the scene
Which of the following incidents would NOT be properly classified as an Assault/Sexual Assault/Stun Gun incident? a. The patient was injured in a bar fight. No weapons were involved b. The patient was stabbed with a knife during a gang initiation c. The patient was raped while on a date with someone she recently met d. The patient was hit several times by a bully with a baseball bat - correct answer b. The patient was stabbed with a knife during a gang initiation When the initial complaint is a seizure, you should see the Convulsions/Seizures call classification regardless of the patient's level of consciousness and breathing status. a. True b. False - correct answer a. True In which of the following scenarios should the Sick Person (Specific Diagnosis) Chief Complaint classification be used? a. The patient is complaining of chest pain b. The patient is vomiting blood c. The patient has a fever d. The caller sees but can't talk to the patient - correct answer c. The patient has a fever It is very difficult (maybe even impossible) for ETCs to remember every question and instruction needed for every type of incident. a. True b. False - correct answer a. True Which of the following is NOT essential for ETCs to obtain/determine for all EMS calls? a. The name of the patient b. The location of the emergency c. A description of exactly what happened d. The patient's breathing status - correct answer a. The name of the patient
Which of the following would be an example of a trauma incident? a. A patient with a terrible headache b. A burned patient c. A seizing patient d. A patient having diabetic problems - correct answer b. A burned patient Emergency management agencies (EMAs) are typically response agencies. a. True b. False - correct answer b. False A basic premise of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is that all incidents begin and end locally, so: a. State and local authorities should maintain command of the incidents b. Federal authorities should take over command of major incidents as soon as possible c. Emergency telecommunicators should be the main incident commanders d. The federal government should not become involved in any way. - correct answer a. State and local authorities should maintain command of the incidents During a disaster, the Incident Command System (ICS) provides an important framework for: a. Communication center management and preparedness b. Determining firefighter strategies and scene safety c. Maintaining command, managing resources, and coordinating efforts d. Creative problem-solving and out-of-the-box thinking - correct answer c. Maintaining command, managing resources, and coordinating efforts The Academy recognizes the emergency telecommunicator as the first Incident Commander (IC) in disaster situations. a. True b. False - correct answer a. True
a. True b. False - correct answer b. False Every communication center should do a hazard analysis in order to: a. Train responders on emergency operations b. Assess he damage after a PSAP has been directly affected by a disaster c. Coordinate a disaster response using Unified Command (UC) d. Determine what might be required if the PSAP is involved or affected by a disaster - correct answer d. Determine what might be required if the PSAP is involved or affected by a disaster Radio waves are low energy because their wavelengths are very short. a. True b. False - correct answer b. False In terms of radio signals, frequency is: a. The interval of time between the broadcasting of a signal and the receipt of the signal b. The highest energy electromagnetic waves c. The number of times a radio signal is broadcast d. The number of electromagnetic waves that pass a given point in one second - correct answer d. The number of electromagnetic waves that pass a given point in one second Frequency band (or bandwidth) is: a. Measured in hertz (Hz) b. Measured in kilowatts (kW) c. The widest point in a radio wave d. A measure of wave thickness - correct answer a. Measured in hertz (Hz) A transmitter antenna is required to receive radio signals.
a. True b. False - correct answer b. False Radio repeaters allow signals to travel farther while maintaining their signal strength and clarity. a. True b. False - correct answer a. True A tuner is used to "tune into" a specific bandwidth signal. Each tuning point is commonly called: a. A repeater b. A channel c. An electromagnetic wave d. A transmission - correct answer b. A channel Which of the radio bands has virtually no skip interference? a. HF (High Frequency) shortwave band (between 3 and 30 MHz) b. VHF (Very High Frequency) low band (25-50 MHz and 72-76 MHz) c. VHF (Very High Frequency) high band (150-174 MHz) d. UHF (Ultra High Frequency) (450-512 MHz) - correct answer d. UHF (Ultra High Frequency) (450-512 MHz) Portable radios (walkie talkies) are transceivers a. True b. False - correct answer a. True Interagency communications and interoperability tend to be inefficient and ineffective: a. Without standardize cross-agency rules and procedures for radio use b. Without the most expensive radio equipment currently available c. When all involved agencies use an agreed upon system of communication
b. False - correct answer b. False The legal concept of detrimental reliance applies when: a. one party thwarts the promise efforts of another party for help or assistance by acting in a manner that hurts the situation b. one party relies on the promised efforts of another party to help or assist and, as a result, misses the opportunity to act in a manner that would have improved the situation c. applies whenever promised efforts determine the outcome of the situation d. there is an omission of remedial or other prudent actions on the part of an employer towards an employee whose poor performance is known - correct answer b. one party relies on the promised efforts of another party to help or assist and, as a result, misses the opportunity to act in a manner that would have improved the situation In regard to legal negligence, causation is proven when: a. standards of care are clear b. a duty is not performed or is performed inappropriately c. harm, such as bodily injury, physical pain, or mental anguish, has been verified d. a direct link between the breach of duty and the identified injury or damage is established - correct answer d. a direct link between the breach of duty and the identified injury or damage is established Which one of the following is not a potential cost associated with being found liable for negligence? a. prison time b. compensatory and/or punitive damages c. attorney and trial costs d. erosion of public opinion - correct answer a. prison time Confidentiality breaches can result in legal action. a. true b. false - correct answer a. true
When possible, emergency telecommunicators should ask the caller for permission before providing Dispatch Life Support (DLS) Instructions. a. true b. false - correct answer b. false Failure to follow protocol can be dangerous as not having a protocol to follow a. true b. false - correct answer a. true A wake-effect collision is a traffic collision directly involving one or more emergency vehicles. a. true b. false - correct answer b. false