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NR 577 STUDY GUIDE 2026 MASTER SOLUTION DIGEST
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โ2. Which finding best differentiates Osgood-Schlatter disease from patellar tendonitis? A. Pain with resisted extension B. Pain after sports C. Localized tenderness at tibial tubercle D. Anterior knee pain. Answer: C. Localized tenderness at tibial tubercle โ3. A 12-year-old has a rib hump on Adams forward bend test. What is the NEXT step? A. Reassurance only B. MRI spine C. Standing spinal X-ray D. Immediate bracing. Answer: C. Standing spinal X-ray โ4. A Cobb angle of 25ยฐ in an adolescent is best managed with: A. Observation B. Physical therapy only C. Bracing D. Surgery. Answer: C. Bracing โ5. A patient presents with unilateral throbbing headache nausea, and photophobia. Best first-line abortive therapy? A. Propranolol B. Topiramate C. Sumatriptan D. Amitriptyline. Answer: , C. Sumatriptan โ6. Which headache presentation requires immediate imaging? A. Migraine with aura B. Tension headache C. Thunderclap headache D. Cluster headache. Answer: C. Thunderclap headache
โ7. A patient has severe unilateral orbital headache with lacrimation and rhinorrhea. Best acute treatment? A. NSAIDs B. Oxygen therapy C. Amitriptyline D. Acetaminophen. Answer: B. Oxygen therapy โ8. Which is a SNOOP headache red flag? A. Bilateral pain B. Gradual onset C. New headache after age 50 D. Photophobia. Answer: C. New headache after age 50 โ9. A patient with GCS of 14 after head trauma is classified as: A. Severe TBI B. Moderate TBI C. Mild TBI D. No TBI. Answer: C. Mild TBI โ10. Which symptom is most consistent with post-concussion syndrome? A. Fever B. Progressive weakness C. Memory difficulty D. Seizure. Answer: C. Memory difficulty โ11. Which is the MOST important diagnostic test for seizure classification? A. CT head B. MRI brain C. EEG D. Lumbar puncture. Answer: C. EEG โ12. First-line treatment for focal seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Valproic acid C. Levetiracetam D. Phenobarbital. Answer: C. Levetiracetam
โ19. First-line medication for MDD: A. Bupropion B. Sertraline C. Lithium D. Quetiapine. Answer: B. Sertraline โ20. Which screening tool assesses depression severity? A. GAD-7 B. PHQ-9 C. SCOFF D. AUDIT. Answer: B. PHQ- 9 โ21. Which condition commonly coexists with depression? A. Asthma B. Anxiety disorder C. Psoriasis D. Epilepsy. Answer: B. Anxiety disorder โ22. Antidepressant-induced mania suggests which diagnosis? A. ADHD B. Panic disorder C. Bipolar disorder D. PTSD. Answer: C. Bipolar disorder โ23. A defining feature of bipolar I disorder is: A. Hypomania only B. Major depression only C. At least one manic episode D. Cyclothymia. Answer: C. At least one manic episode โ24. Antidepressant monotherapy in bipolar disorder can: A. Improve mood B. Reduce cycling C. Trigger mania D. Prevent relapse. Answer: C. Trigger mania โ25. First-line mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder: A. Fluoxetine B. Lithium C. Diazepam D. Sertraline. Answer: B. Lithium
โ26. Strongest predictor of future suicide: A. Depression B. Anxiety C. Prior suicide attempt D. Substance use. Answer: C. Prior suicide attempt โ27. MOST important suicide assessment question: A. Family history B. Access to firearms C. Current suicidal ideation with plan D. Sleep patterns. Answer: C. Current suicidal ideation with plan โ28. GAD requires excessive worry lasting at least: A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 12 months. Answer: C. 6 months โ29. First-line medication for GAD: A. Benzodiazepines B. SSRIs C. Antipsychotics D. Mood stabilizers. Answer: B. SSRIs โ30. Propranolol is MOST useful for: A. GAD B. Panic disorder C. Performance anxiety D. PTSD. Answer: C. Performance anxiety โ31. Panic disorder diagnosis requires panic attacks plus: A. Depression B. Psychosis C. Persistent concern or behavior change D. Sleep disturbance. Answer: C. Persistent concern or behavior change โ32. ADHD symptoms must begin before age: A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 18. Answer: C. 12
โ40. Defining feature of anorexia nervosa: A. Binge eating B. Purging C. Significantly low body weight D. Electrolyte imbalance only. Answer: C. Significantly low body weight โ41. Common complication of bulimia nervosa: A. Hyperkalemia B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Dental erosion D. Bradycardia. Answer: C. Dental erosion โ42. FDA-approved medication for bulimia nervosa: A. Sertraline B. Fluoxetine C. Bupropion D. Lithium. Answer: B. Fluoxetine โ43. Most common skin cancer: A. Melanoma B. SCC C. BCC D. Kaposi sarcoma. Answer: C. BCC โ44. Skin cancer with highest mortality: A. BCC B. SCC C. Melanoma D. Actinic keratosis. Answer: C. Melanoma โ45. Which is part of ABCDE melanoma criteria? A. Firmness B. Border irregularity C. Itching D. Ulceration. Answer: B. Border irregularity โ46. Psoriasis is associated with: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Lupus D. Gout. Answer: B. Psoriatic arthritis
โ47. Common psoriasis trigger: A. Exercise B. Stress C. Sun exposure D. Antibiotics. Answer: B. Stress โ48. Type 1 diabetes is caused by: A. Insulin resistance B. Autoimmune beta-cell destruction C. Obesity D. Diet. Answer: B. Autoimmune beta-cell destruction โ49. First-line therapy for type 2 diabetes: A. Insulin B. Metformin C. Sulfonylureas D. GLP-1 agonists. Answer: B. Metformin โ50. Metformin works primarily by: A. Increasing insulin secretion B. Decreasing hepatic glucose production C. Increasing glucose absorption D. Delaying gastric emptying. Answer: B. Decreasing hepatic glucose production โ51. Which class increases urinary glucose excretion? A. GLP-1 RA B. DPP-4 inhibitors C. SGLT2 inhibitors D. Sulfonylureas. Answer: C. SGLT2 inhibitors โ52. Target A1c for most adults: A. <6% B. <6.5% C. <7% D. <8%. Answer: C. <7% โ53. Insulin with no peak: A. Lispro B. Regular C. NPH D. Glargine. Answer: D. Glargine
โ62. Racial health disparities are primarily driven by: A. Genetics B. Patient behavior C. Structural inequities D. Provider preference. Answer: C. Structural inequities โ63. Best practice in LGBTQ+ care: A. Avoid asking about identity B. Screen based on anatomy C. Use assumptions D. Limit sexual screening. Answer: B. Screen based on anatomy โ64. A patient not allowed to speak alone raises concern for: A. Anxiety B. Psychosis C. Human trafficking D. Dementia. Answer: C. Human trafficking โ65. Adolescent alcohol screening tool: A. AUDIT B. PHQ-9 C. CRAFFT D. CAGE. Answer: C. CRAFFT โ66. Alcohol use disorder DSM-5 criteria include: A. Tolerance only B. Withdrawal only C. Impaired control and risky use D. Legal issues only. Answer: C. Impaired control and risky use โ67. Cocaine intoxication causes: A. Miosis B. Bradycardia C. Dilated pupils D. Hypotension. Answer: C. Dilated pupils
โ68. Chronic cocaine use may cause: A. Liver failure B. Renal failure C. Nasal septal perforation D. Lung fibrosis. Answer: C. Nasal septal perforation โ69. Tolerance means: A. Less substance needed B. Same dose effect C. More substance needed D. Withdrawal symptoms. Answer: C. More substance needed โ70. Dependence refers to: A. Addiction only B. Physiologic adaptation C. Social impairment D. Intoxication. Answer: B. Physiologic adaptation โ71. Withdrawal occurs when: A. Dose increased B. Drug stopped C. Tolerance develops D. Dependence resolves. Answer: B. Drug stopped