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NSG 3280 EXAM 2 (GALEN) NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
TEST BANK| NSG3280 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR NURSES
EXAM 2 REVIEW WITH 4 50 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
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Atopic dermatitis (eczema) is caused by a) parasitic infestation of the skin b) superficial staphylococcal infection c) Superficial fungal infection d) contact with skin allergens - Correct Answer - d Itchy linear burrows on the hands and wrists are associated with a) tick bites b) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever c) Scabies d) Contact dermatitis - Correct Answer - c The cancer considered to be the most malignant is a) hyperkeratosis b) basal cell carcinoma c) squamous cell carcinoma d) melanoma - Correct Answer - d
The presence of a widely distributed pruritic maculopapular rash and erythema is commonly associated with a) psoriasis b) drug reaction c) scleroderms d) bedbug bites - Correct Answer - B At puberty when sebaceous gland secretion increases, follicle obstruction and infection may occur, resulting in a) psoriasis b) eczema c) acne vulgaris d) pemphigus - Correct Answer - c Acute, painful inflammation with vesicles along the distribution of a spinal nerve (dermatome) is a characteristic of a) herpes zoster b) herpes simplex c) HPV d) tinea - Correct Answer - A A topical therapy that would tend to dry the skin because it is an astringent is
b) variations in color within the nevus c) very dark coloration of the mole d) diameter less than 2 mm - Correct Answer - b Impetigo is a skin infection caused by a) Fungus b) Yeast c) bacteria d) parasite - Correct Answer - c Scleroderma is characterized by a) large weeping open sores b) thickening and decreased elasticity of the skin c) butterfly rash on face d) Hair loss and ulcer formation on the extremities - Correct Answer - b Which type of dermatitis is associated with cradle cap in newborns a) irritant b) seborrheic c) atopic d) status - Correct Answer - B
What is the most common benign form of skin cancer a) Basal b) squamous c) melanoma d) actinic keratosis - Correct Answer - a What is the most deadliest form of skin cancer? a) Basal b) squamous c) melanoma d) actinic keratosis - Correct Answer - C Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes a) Measles b) mumps c) chickenpox d) rubella - Correct Answer - c which finding is a characteristic of oral candidiasis a) silvery plaques on the skin b) itching oozing rash c) thickened discolored nails
a) multiple fluid-filled vesicles on the lips, tongue, and hands b) generalized painful maculopapular rash C) red itchy palms & soles of feet d) dermal distribution of lesions and pain - Correct Answer - d Psoriasis is characterized by a) a silvery scale on the skin b) itchy oozing rash c) thickened discolored nails d) white-ish coating on tongue - Correct Answer - a Conditions caused by a virus include a) athletes foot b) boils c) warts d) impetigo - Correct Answer - c Onycholysis is characterized by a) a silvery scale on the skin b) itchy oozing rash c) destruction of nails d) white-ish coating on the tongue - Correct Answer - c
SELECT ALL
herpes simplex 1 infection a) causes both oral and genital infections b) burning tingling sensation c) reactivates with stress, sun exposure, and menses d) is painless e) remains latent in spinal ganglia between outbreak - Correct Answer - B, C, E Allergic (extrinsic) asthma is associated with a) hyporesponsiveness of airways. b) unknown precipitating factors. c) IgE-mediated airway inflammation. d) irreversible airway obstruction. - Correct Answer - c All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by a. resistance to airflow. b. hyperresponsiveness. c. decreased residual volumes. d. decreased lung compliance. - Correct Answer - a
c) increased expiratory reserve volume. d) decreased total lung capacity. - Correct Answer - b When exposed to inhaled allergens, a patient with asthma produces large quantities of a. IgG. b. IgE. c. IgA. d. IgM. - Correct Answer - b In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event? a- Loss of alveolar elastin and premature closure of airways b- Pulmonary edema and decreased alveolar compliance c- Mast cell degranulation that causes decreased surfactant d- Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction - Correct Answer - d Which complication of asthma is life threatening? a) Exercise-induced asthma b) Late phase response c) Status asthmaticus d) Mast cell degranulation - Correct Answer - c
he increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by a) increased pulmonary blood flow. b) increased expiratory flow rates c) increased residual lung volumes d) decreased chest wall compliance - Correct Answer - c The assessment findings of a 5-year-old with a history of asthma include extreme shortness of breath, nasal flaring, coughing, pulsus paradoxus, and use of accessory respiratory muscles. There is no wheezing and the chest is silent in many areas. How should you interpret your assessment? a) The child probably has consolidated pneumonia; oxygen should be started immediately. b) Since there is not wheezing, asthma is the problem, but oxygen should be started immediately anyway. c) The signs and symptoms are consistent with asthma; start oxygen and then check to see that your stethoscope is working properly. d) The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately. - Correct Answer - d An acute asthma attack is associated with (Select all that apply.) a) bronchoconstriction.
b) decreased residual volume. c) inspiratory wheezing. d) expiratory wheezing. - Correct Answer - B Chronic occupational lung disease is characterized by (Select all that apply.) a) causation from long-term inhalation of inorganic material. b) a latent period before symptoms occur. c) hyperactive respiratory macrophages. d) a progressive cough and dyspnea with exercise. e) possible negative chest x-ray when symptom-free. - Correct Answer - A, B, D, E Nasal cannula - ANSWER - - Delivers flow rate up to 6 L/min - 24%- 40% (Humidity Nares) Simple face mask - ANSWER - 35% - 50% O2 Delivery, FR= 6L - 12L Non-Rebreather - ANSWER - (higher concentration) 60 - 90% oxygen; Reservoir and Mask Valve to prevent air from flowing back into bag 10-15L
Venturi Mask - ANSWER - (used for short term oxygen therapy)
- Oxygen concentration 24%-60%
- Oxygen flow 4-12 L/min Face tent mask: - ANSWER - 40% O2 delivery, FR= 10L - 15 L BEFORE ADMINISTERING O2... - ANSWER - you put up the sign (First thing you do) Incentive spirometers - ANSWER - Keeps your your lungs active How often should you order a incentive spirometer? - ANSWER - Order 10 times/hr while awake what situations is the incentive spirometer used? - ANSWER - - Pneumonia
- Postop
- Difficulty breathing What can incentive spirometers prevent? - ANSWER - Prevents atelectasis through deep breathing and chest physical therapy what technique is used for suctioning? - ANSWER - sterile technique
what position should the bed be in? - ANSWER - Elevating head of the bed at least 45 degrees Elevating head of the bed at least 45 degrees promotes.. - ANSWER - - Lung expansion
- Coughing and deep breathing
- Elimination of retained secretion Atelectasis - ANSWER - is a complete or partial collapse of the entire lung or lobe Atelectasis is caused by - ANSWER - collapsed lung and caused the pressure to change difference between venturi mask and Simple mask? - ANSWER - - Simple face mask which covers the face and the nose and delivers low- oxygen levels Venturi-mask is a short term oxygen therapy and delivers oxygen at high levels Vital signs that get affected? - ANSWER - after hyperventilating respiratory rate should come down Risk factors for impaired gas exchange - ANSWER - - Age
- Personal characteristics (smoking, immobility, obesity)
- Chronic comorbidities affect respiratory functions (COPD, Asthma,HD,cystic fibrosis)
- Immunosuppression
- Anemia
- Decreased level of consciousness
- Neuromuscular disease (ALS, guillain barre, myasthenia gravis)
- Brain injury Arterial Blood Gas - ANSWER - - pH --Is inversely proportional to the actual hydrogen ion concentration --Normal valves are between 7.35 and 7. --pH values less than 7.35 indicate acidosis --Greater than 7.45 indicate alkalosis Promoting Oxygenation - ANSWER - - positioning:Fowlers, High fowlers
- Breath techniques --Deep breathing --Incentive spirometry --Pursed lip breathing Asepsis - ANSWER - - Absence or control of microorganism
- Prevent spread of infections
- The 1' edges of a sterile field or edges of a container is considered to be contaminated Mode of Transmission - ANSWER - contact, droplet, airborne, vector borne Mode of Transmission: Contact - ANSWER - via direct/ indirect contact with infected person or object contaminated with the pathogen Examples of contact - ANSWER - MRSA, VRE, C diff Mode of Transmission: Droplet - ANSWER - With spray or splash via coughing and sneezing Examples of droplet - ANSWER - Influenza, pertussis, Covid 19 Mode of Transmission: Airborne - ANSWER - Via air and inhaled into respiratory tract of susceptible host Examples of airborne - ANSWER - Tuberculosis, Varicella, Measles Mode of Transmission: Vector-borne - ANSWER - from an animal or insect to human
Examples of Vector borne - ANSWER - Zika, malaria, lymes disease Contact Precautions - ANSWER - - Private room or cohort with same organism
- PPE: gloves and gown
- Mask if necessary Contact Indications - ANSWER - Antibiotics and Multidrug resistant bacteria (VRE, MRSA) C. diff, Colitis, scabies Droplet Precautions - ANSWER - - Single room or cohort in the same room
- SURGICAL MASK when within 3 ft of patient --Limit transport
- Client wears mask during transport Droplet Indications - ANSWER - Influenza, rhinovirus, meningococcal pneumonia Airborne Isolation - ANSWER - - Private room required
- Negative pressure ventilation: with door closed
- N95 mask --Remove after exiting the room
