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Question 1. Which component of ONAP is primarily responsible for modeling services using TOSCA or HEAT templates? A) Service Orchestrator (SO) B) Service Design and Creation (SDC) C) Active & Available Inventory (A&AI) D) Data Movement as a Platform (DMaaP) Answer: B Explanation: SDC provides the design‑time environment where services are modeled with TOSCA/HEAT and VSPs are onboarded. Question 2. In the ONAP runtime framework, which microservice acts as the central point for inventory of network resources? A) Service Design and Creation (SDC) B) Active & Available Inventory (A&AI) C) Data Collection, Analytics and Events (DCAE) D) Policy Framework (PF) Answer: B Explanation: A&AI maintains a real‑time view of all physical and logical resources across the domain. Question 3. Which message bus does ONAP use for component communication? A) Kafka B) RabbitMQ C) DMaaP (Data Movement as a Platform) D) MQTT Answer: C
Explanation: DMaaP is ONAP’s publish/subscribe bus that transports events, logs, and notifications between microservices. Question 4. What is the minimum review requirement for a patch to be merged in ONAP’s Gerrit workflow? A) One +1 review B) Two +1 reviews or one +2 review C) Three +1 reviews D) No review required if the author is a PTL Answer: B Explanation: ONAP mandates at least two +1 approvals or a single +2 from a trusted committer before merging. Question 5. Which role is responsible for electing the Project Technical Lead (PTL) in ONAP? A) All contributors B) The Technical Steering Committee (TSC) C) Existing PTLs only D) The Open Source Initiative (OSI) Answer: B Explanation: The TSC oversees governance and conducts elections for PTLs. Question 6. What status does an ONAP committer receive after a prolonged period of inactivity? A) Emeritus B) Suspended C) Guest D) Reviewer
D) SDC Credential Vault Answer: C Explanation: DCAE includes a secret store service that injects credentials at runtime, preventing them from appearing in source code. Question 10. Which standard defines the packaging and lifecycle of VNFs that ONAP must comply with? A) ISO 27001 B) ETSI SOL C) ITU‑T Y. D) 3GPP TS 28. Answer: B Explanation: ETSI SOL001 (along with SOL003 & SOL004) specifies VNF package descriptors and lifecycle management, which ONAP implements. Question 11. Which data model language does ONAP use for configuration of network functions? A) JSON Schema B) YANG C) XML Schema (XSD) D) Protobuf Answer: B Explanation: YANG models define configuration and operational data for VNFs and are used by ONAP’s SDNC and AAF. Question 12. What is the primary purpose of the ONAP Operations Manager (OOM)? A) Service design
B) Orchestrating VNF deployment C) Managing Kubernetes clusters and monitoring health of microservices D) Providing a web UI for end‑users Answer: C Explanation: OOM oversees the Kubernetes‑based infrastructure, handling scaling, upgrades, and health checks of ONAP pods. Question 13. Which of the following is a core principle of ONAP’s microservices architecture? A) Monolithic deployment for simplicity B) Stateless services with containerized deployment C) Direct database sharing between services D) Use of SOAP for all inter‑service communication Answer: B Explanation: ONAP adopts stateless, containerized microservices to enable independent scaling and resilience. Question 14. Which ONAP component collects VES (Virtual Event Streaming) events from VNFs? A) Policy Framework (PF) B) DCAE Collector C) Service Orchestrator (SO) D) A&AI Answer: B Explanation: DCAE collectors ingest VES events, normalizing them for analytics and policy processing.
Question 18. Which repository management tool does ONAP use to store built artifacts? A) Artifactory B) Nexus Repository Manager C) Docker Hub D) Maven Central Answer: B Explanation: Nexus hosts ONAP’s Maven and Docker artifacts for downstream consumption. Question 19. Which of the following is NOT a typical vulnerability category covered by CWE/SANS Top 25 that ONAP committers must watch for? A) SQL Injection B) Cross‑Site Scripting (XSS) C) Memory Leak D) Use‑After‑Free Answer: C Explanation: Memory leaks are performance issues, not listed among the top 25 security weaknesses; the others are. Question 20. Which ONAP component provides the OOM dashboard for health monitoring? A) ONAP Portal B) Kibana UI integrated with OOM C) SDC UI D) AAF UI Answer: B Explanation: OOM integrates with Elasticsearch/Kibana to present a dashboard of microservice health metrics.
Question 21. In the ONAP governance model, who can revoke a committer’s merge rights? A) Any contributor with +1 review rights B) The PTL of the corresponding project C) The Technical Steering Committee (TSC) D) The Linux Foundation Board Answer: C Explanation: The TSC holds authority to modify committer status, including revocation of merge privileges. Question 22. Which of the following best describes the “Control Loop” concept in ONAP? A) A manual process for network provisioning B) An automated feedback cycle that observes, decides, and acts on network conditions C) A static configuration file for VNFs D) A security audit checklist Answer: B Explanation: Control loops implement OODA (Observe‑Orient‑Decide‑Act) to achieve self‑optimizing behavior. Question 23. What is the primary format for service models stored in SDC? A) YAML files only B) TOSCA Simple Profile in YAML or XML C) Proprietary binary format D) JSON Schema only Answer: B Explanation: SDC supports TOSCA Simple Profile definitions, which can be expressed in YAML or XML.
Explanation: VSP refers to a vendor‑supplied software product that is onboarded and modeled in SDC. Question 27. Which ONAP component provides the “Policy Decision Point” (PDP) functionality? A) Service Orchestrator (SO) B) Policy Framework (PF) C) A&AI A) DCAE Answer: B Explanation: PF contains the PDP that evaluates policies and returns actions to be executed. Question 28. Which of the following is a recommended practice for handling third‑party library vulnerabilities in ONAP? A) Ignore them if they are only used in test code B) Update the dependency and run a SonarQube scan before merging C) Replace the library with a custom implementation without testing D) Add a comment in code stating “vulnerable library” Answer: B Explanation: Updating the library and verifying with static analysis (SonarQube) ensures no known CVEs are introduced. Question 29. Which of the following standards aligns ONAP’s information model with TM Forum? A) SID (Shared Information/Data model) B) NGOSS (New Generation Operations Systems and Software) C) ITU‑T Y.
D) 3GPP TS 23.
Answer: B Explanation: TM Forum’s NGOSS framework defines the Common Information Model (CIM) that ONAP adopts. Question 30. What is the purpose of the “A&AI” API “GET /network‑services/{id}”? A) Retrieve a VNF descriptor B) Fetch inventory details of a specific network service instance C) Submit a new service design D) Delete an inventory record Answer: B Explanation: This API returns the current state and relationships of a network‑service instance stored in A&AI. Question 31. Which of the following best describes the role of “SDNC” in ONAP? A) Service design and UI rendering B) Network configuration orchestration using YANG models C) Artifact repository management D) Continuous integration pipeline execution Answer: B Explanation: SDNC (Software Defined Network Controller) handles configuration and lifecycle actions using YANG‑based models. Question 32. In ONAP, what is the typical file extension for a TOSCA service model? A) .yaml or .yml B) .csar C) .xml
B) Ensure the patch is a critical build‑fix and get explicit TSC approval C) Merge only after a weekend window D) No special steps; self‑merge is always allowed Answer: B Explanation: Self‑merging is restricted to critical fixes and must be approved by the TSC to prevent abuse. Question 36. Which ONAP component is responsible for publishing events to DMaaP? A) Service Orchestrator (SO) only B) All microservices can act as producers/consumers C) Only DCAE can publish events D) Only A&AI can publish events Answer: B Explanation: DMaaP is a generic message bus; any ONAP microservice can produce or consume events. Question 37. What does the “SOL004” ETSI NFV standard specify? A) VNF onboarding descriptors B) VNF lifecycle management interfaces (e.g., instantiate, scale) C) NFVI resource allocation algorithms D) Security mechanisms for NFV Answer: B Explanation: SOL004 defines the REST APIs for VNF lifecycle operations, which ONAP implements. Question 38. Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of an ONAP PTL? A) Setting project road‑maps
B) Directly merging every patch submitted by contributors C) Representing the project at the TSC D) Coordinating releases and milestones Answer: B Explanation: PTLs oversee governance but do not individually merge all patches; merge rights are distributed among committers. Question 39. When a contributor wants to become a committer, which of the following is most important? A) Paying a membership fee B) Demonstrating consistent, high‑quality code contributions and peer reviews C) Holding a PhD in networking D) Being a vendor employee Answer: B Explanation: ONAP follows meritocracy; sustained contributions and code review activity are key for promotion. Question 40. Which tool does ONAP use for static code analysis and quality gating? A) SonarQube B) FindBugs C) PMD D) Checkstyle Answer: A Explanation: SonarQube is integrated into the CI pipeline to enforce quality gates before merging.
Question 44. Which of the following is a primary advantage of deploying ONAP microservices on Kubernetes? A) Eliminates the need for any CI/CD pipeline B) Provides automated scaling, self‑healing, and declarative deployment C) Guarantees zero latency communication between services D) Removes the requirement for a message bus Answer: B Explanation: Kubernetes offers built‑in scaling, health monitoring, and declarative manifests, aligning with ONAP’s microservice needs. Question 45. Which of the following best describes the “Service Design and Creation (SDC) UI” role? A) It is a command‑line interface for developers only B) It provides a graphical editor for building service blueprints and onboarding VSPs C) It serves as a monitoring dashboard for runtime metrics D) It is used to configure network policies only Answer: B Explanation: SDC UI allows users to graphically model services, define workflows, and manage VSP onboarding. Question 46. Which of the following is NOT a valid ONAP release naming convention? A) “Oxygen” B) “Paris” C) “Nile” D) “Orleans” Answer: D
Explanation: ONAP releases are named after world cities; “Orleans” is not part of the official list. Question 47. Which component of ONAP is responsible for policy execution in response to events from DCAE? A) Service Orchestrator (SO) B) Policy Framework (PF) C) Active & Available Inventory (A&AI) D) ONAP Operations Manager (OOM) Answer: B Explanation: PF consumes events, evaluates policies, and triggers actions via the policy engine. Question 48. What is the primary purpose of the “A&AI” “GET /cloud‑region/{id}” API? A) Retrieve the topology of a physical data center B) Fetch details of a cloud region registered in the inventory C) Delete a cloud region from the inventory D) Submit a new cloud region definition Answer: B Explanation: This API returns metadata about a specific cloud region stored in A&AI. Question 49. Which of the following best describes the “VNF Package” in ONAP terminology? A) A Docker image only B) A CSAR archive containing VNFD, scripts, and metadata compliant with ETSI SOL C) A simple ZIP file with source code D) A proprietary binary format specific to ONAP Answer: B
D) ETSI NFV‑SOL
Answer: C Explanation: 3GPP TS 29.172 specifies VES, which DCAE uses to collect performance and fault data. Question 53. In ONAP, which component provides the “Policy Decision Point (PDP)” and “Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)”? A) Service Orchestrator (SO) B) Policy Framework (PF) C) DCAE D) A&AI Answer: B Explanation: PF implements both PDP (evaluates policies) and PEP (applies decisions). Question 54. Which of the following best describes the purpose of “NFVO” in ONAP terminology? A) Network Function Virtualization Orchestrator – the logical entity that coordinates VNF lifecycle across the platform B) Network File Versioning Operator – a Git tool C) New Feature Validation Object – a testing framework D) None of the above Answer: A Explanation: NFVO is the orchestrator role that ONAP’s Service Orchestrator fulfills. Question 55. Which of the following is a primary reason to avoid using GPLv3‑licensed libraries in ONAP code? A) GPLv3 is incompatible with the Apache‑2.0 license used by most ONAP components, potentially causing licensing conflicts.
B) GPLv3 libraries are slower at runtime. C) GPLv3 requires a paid subscription. D) ONAP already includes GPLv3 in its core. Answer: A Explanation: GPLv3’s copyleft terms conflict with ONAP’s permissive licensing policy. Question 56. Which ONAP component acts as the “policy execution engine” that can trigger scaling actions? A) Policy Framework (PF) – specifically the Policy Engine (PE) B) Service Orchestrator (SO) C) DCAE Analytics D) A&AI Answer: A Explanation: The PF’s Policy Engine evaluates policies and can invoke scaling via SO. Question 57. Which of the following is a correct statement about ONAP’s “Microservice Health Check” mechanism? A) It only runs on startup. B) It uses Kubernetes liveness and readiness probes to determine pod health. C) It requires manual execution by an operator. D) It disables the service if any log entry contains the word “error”. Answer: B Explanation: Health checks are implemented via Kubernetes probes that periodically verify service responsiveness. Question 58. Which of the following best describes the “Feature Branch” workflow in ONAP’s Git development?
