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Pathophysiology Unit 4, Summaries of Pathophysiology

East Coast Polytechnic Institute (ECPI)Pathophysiology

Pathophysiology Unit 4 ECPI Wall

Typology: Summaries

2025/2026

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Chapters 14, 15, 19, 21, 23, 24
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health
Professions, 7th
Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain
and spinal cord?
c. In the subarachnoid space
2. Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?
a. Left hemisphere
3. What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the
left hemisphere?
b. Inability to understand what is heard
4. Which of the following applies to the corticospinal tract?
d. It is a pyramidal tract for efferent impulses.
5. What is a major function of the limbic system?
c. Determines emotional responses
6. Where are b1-adrenergic receptors located?
c. Cardiac muscle
7. What does a vegetative state refer to?
b. Loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem
function
8. Which of the following conditions is NOT part of the criteria for a
declaration of “brain
death”?
d. Presence of any head injury
9. What is the best definition of
aphasia
?
a. The inability to comprehend or express language appropriately
10. What is an early indicator of increased intracranial pressure?
c. Decreasing responsiveness
11. What is the rationale for vomiting in a patient who has increased
intracranial pressure?
c. Pressure on the emetic center in the medulla
12. What is the typical change in blood pressure in a patient who has
increased intracranial
pressure?
d. Increasing pulse pressure
13. The largest category of primary malignant brain tumors that arise from
cells in the central
nervous system (CNS) are called
a. gliomas.
14. Which of the following causes papilledema?
a. Increased pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the optic disc
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Chapters 14, 15, 19, 21, 23, 24

Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders

VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health

Professions, 7th

Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain

and spinal cord?

c. In the subarachnoid space

2. Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?

a. Left hemisphere

3. What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the

left hemisphere?

b. Inability to understand what is heard

4. Which of the following applies to the corticospinal tract?

d. It is a pyramidal tract for efferent impulses.

5. What is a major function of the limbic system?

c. Determines emotional responses

6. Where are b1-adrenergic receptors located?

c. Cardiac muscle

7. What does a vegetative state refer to?

b. Loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem

function

8. Which of the following conditions is NOT part of the criteria for a

declaration of “brain

death”?

d. Presence of any head injury

9. What is the best definition of aphasia?

a. The inability to comprehend or express language appropriately

10. What is an early indicator of increased intracranial pressure?

c. Decreasing responsiveness

11. What is the rationale for vomiting in a patient who has increased

intracranial pressure?

c. Pressure on the emetic center in the medulla

12. What is the typical change in blood pressure in a patient who has

increased intracranial

pressure?

d. Increasing pulse pressure

13. The largest category of primary malignant brain tumors that arise from

cells in the central

nervous system (CNS) are called

a. gliomas.

14. Which of the following causes papilledema?

a. Increased pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the optic disc

15. What is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular

activity?

c. Systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate

16. As intracranial pressure rises, the pupil of the eye, ipsilateral to the

lesion, becomes dilated

and unresponsive to light because of pressure on the

b. peripheral nervous system (PNS) fibers in cranial nerve III.

17. Which of the following characteristics indicates that the CSF is normal?

d. Clear and colorless fluid

18. Which of the following statements is TRUE about malignant brain tumors?

b. Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS.

19. Secondary brain tumors usually arise from

b. metastasized breast or lung tumors.

20. Why are focal or generalized seizures sometimes an early indication of a

brain tumor?

a. Surrounding inflammation stimulates neurons to discharge spontaneously.

21. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about transient ischemic

attacks (TIAs)?

d. They can warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents.

22. What is the probable source of an embolus causing a cerebrovascular

accident (CVA)?

c. Common carotid artery

23. Collateral circulation is most likely to be present when a CVA results from

c. atherosclerosis.

24. All of the following apply to CVA EXCEPT

b. maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset.

25. Signs and symptoms of a stroke depend upon

a. location of obstruction, size of artery, and area affected.

26. In the weeks following CVA, why might some neurological function

return?

1. Presence of collateral circulation

2. Immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion

3. Reduced inflammation in the area

4. Development of alternative neuronal pathways

e. 1, 2, 3, 4

ANS: E

27. Which of the following statements about berry aneurysms in the brain is

NOT true?

c. CSF remains free of blood.

28. In a case of bacterial meningitis, where does swelling and purulent

exudate form?

a. In the pia mater, arachnoid, and surface of the entire brain

29. What are significant signs of acute bacterial meningitis?

a. Severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia

4. Diabetes mellitus

d. 1, 2, 3, 4

ANS: D

47. What are the significant early signs of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm?

b. Severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia

48. The stroke scale used to rapidly diagnose a stroke includes

a. capacity for speech, level of consciousness, motor skills, eye movements.

49. With regard to meningitis, choose the correct combination of microbe and

the age group

commonly affected.

c. N. meningitides: children and youth

50. Which of the following statements applies to a lumbar puncture?

a. It is usually performed at L3-L4.

51. Which signs are indicative of post-polio syndrome?

c. Progressive fatigue and weakness

52. Which of the following does NOT apply to Reye’s syndrome?

a. There is no permanent damage in the body.

53. Which type of fracture typically occurs at the base of the skull?

d. Basilar

54. The primary reason for seizures frequently occurring with head injuries is

a. presence of blood irritates the neurons.

55. Brain injury where the brain is injured when it bounces off of the skull due

to sudden

acceleration or deceleration is referred to as a/an

d. contrecoup injury.

56. The rabies virus is usually transmitted by

c. bites from infected animals.

57. Common manifestations of rabies infection include

a. headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing.

58. Which statement is TRUE about tetanus infection?

b. Infection usually develops in deep puncture wounds.

59. Which of the following impairments results from infection by the polio

virus?

a. Pain and paresthesia in a cranial nerve or dermatome

60. Herpes zoster can be identified by a typical

a. unilateral rash and pain along a cranial nerve or dermatome.

61. Which of the following conditions is marked by focal signs?

b. Brain abscess

62. Typical signs of a TIA include

c. transient muscle weakness in a hand or leg.

63. In cases of noncommunicating hydrocephalus, why does excess

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

accumulate?

c. An obstruction is present in the aqueduct of Sylvius or other channel.

64. All of the following are typical signs of hydrocephalus in the neonate

EXCEPT

b. vomiting, headache, and paralysis.

65. The best description of a myelomeningocele is

c. herniation of the meninges, CSF, and spinal cord or nerves through a

vertebral

defect.

66. How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?

a. Prenatally by ultrasound or detection of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in

maternal blood

or amniotic fluid

67. What characteristic is common to all individuals with cerebral palsy?

d. Some degree of motor disability

68. Which of the following applies to cerebral palsy?

a. Nonprogressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate

69. Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures?

b. The uncontrolled discharge of neurons in both hemispheres

70. From the following, choose the two events (in correct sequence) that

immediately follow the

aura during a tonic-clonic event:

c. Loss of consciousness, then the tonic stage

71. What does the clonic stage of a seizure consist of?

c. Alternating contractions and relaxation of skeletal muscles

72. How would a seizure consisting of bizarre or inappropriate activity be

classified?

b. Psychomotor seizure

73. Which of the following is characteristic of multiple sclerosis?

a. Remissions and exacerbations

74. Which statement does NOT apply to the pathophysiology of multiple

sclerosis?

d. Progressive random degeneration of peripheral nerves

75. Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?

b. Areas of numbness, weakness in the legs, visual problems

76. Which of the following applies to Parkinson’s disease?

a. Usually develops in men and women over 60 years of age.

77. What is the pathophysiological change in Parkinson’s disease?

c. Degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine

78. Which of the following are common early manifestations of Parkinson’s

disease?

a. Tremors at rest in the hands and repetitive motion of the hands

79. In which type of neuron is progressive degeneration occurring with

amyotrophic lateral

sclerosis (ALS)?

b. Upper and lower motor neurons

80. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to myasthenia gravis?

d. Dementia develops in the later stage.

81. Which statement applies to Huntington’s disease?

95. Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of advanced Parkinson’s

disease?

c. Loss of vision

96. Which of the following is a typical early sign of amyotrophic lateral

sclerosis (ALS)?

d. Weakness and muscle atrophy in upper limbs

97. Which of the following classes of drugs may provide temporary

improvement in cases of

myasthenia gravis?

c. Anticholinesterase agents

98. Which of the following are typical early signs of Alzheimer’s disease?

1. Behavioral changes

2. Reduced ability to reason and problem solve

a. 1, 2

ANS: A

99. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a common contributing

factor to AIDS

dementia?

b. Development of arteriosclerosis

100. Communicating hydrocephalus causes increased intracranial pressure

because of

b. failure of the subarachnoid to absorb CSF.

101. Failure of the spinous processes to fuse, but without herniation of the

meninges, is called

a. spina bifida occulta.

102. Which statement is TRUE about amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?

a. Cognitive function remains normal.

103. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by

d. infection in the brain by a prion.

104. Huntington’s disease is diagnosed by

c. DNA analysis.

105. Which statement is TRUE about depression?

a. It is classified as a mood disorder.

106. Amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by the organism:

a. Naeglaria fowleri

Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory

Organs

VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health

Professions, 7th

Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control?

a. Movement of the eyeball

2. What must happen for the pupil of the eye to dilate?

c. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is required.

3. Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or

lens?

b. Astigmatism

4. Trachoma is an eye infection caused by

d. Chlamydia bacteria.

5. Which statement does NOT apply to chronic glaucoma?

c. Abnormally narrow angle between the cornea and iris

6. Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?

b. Chronic (wide-angle) glaucoma

7. Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?

b. Cataract

8. Which of the following is a likely consequence of an untreated detached

retina?

a. Lack of nutrients causing death of retinal cells

9. Which of the following is a sign of a detached retina?

d. No pain, development of a dark area in the visual field

10. What is the basic pathological change with macular degeneration?

c. Degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis

11. What does the inner ear contain?

b. Organ of Corti and semicircular canals

12. Which of the following is an example of conduction deafness?

c. Adhesions reducing the movement of the ossicles

13. In a case of acute otitis media, what would a purulent discharge in the

external canal of the ear and some pain relief likely indicate?

c. Rupture of the tympanic membrane

14. How does otosclerosis cause hearing loss?

a. Fixation of the stapes to the oval window

15. Why does vertigo occur with Ménière’s syndrome?

d. Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth.

16. Which is the early effect of age-related macular degeneration?

a. Loss of central visual acuity

17. Which of the following is often the first sign of ototoxicity from drugs or

chemicals?

b. Tinnitus

18. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

b. Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.

19. Loss of the left visual field results from damage to the

d. right occipital lobe.

20. The involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes is referred to as

b. nystagmus.

21. An infection that damages the auditory nerve can cause what type of

hearing loss?

a. Sensorineural

22. Which fluid is found surrounding the optic disc?

c. Cerebrospinal fluid

23. The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the

b. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria

6. Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy?

c. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency.

7. Why does frequent need for urination occur with benign prostatic

hypertrophy?

d. Incomplete emptying of the bladder

8. Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from

prostatic cancer?

a. Bone

9. What is a useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer?

c. Prostate-specific antigen

10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the

reproductive years?

c. It does not contain any cells.

11. Which of the following applies to the corpus luteum?

c. It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the latter half of the

menstrual cycle.

12. Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?

b. Inflammation due to blood irritating the endometrial tissue

13. With pelvic inflammatory disease, why does infection spread easily into

the peritoneal cavity?

a. The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into

the uterus.

14. Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?

d. Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia

15. Which of the following refers to fibrocystic breast disease?

a. Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue

16. Which of the following applies to carcinoma of the breast?

b. Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.

17. Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical

cancer?

d. Noninvasive severe dysplasia

18. What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?

c. Infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV)

19. What is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma?

b. Minor vaginal bleeding or spotting

20. Which sexually transmitted infection(s) is/are usually considered

asymptomatic in women?

a. Chlamydia

b. Gonorrhea

c. Syphilis

d. All of these

ANS: D

21. Which of the following frequently causes pelvic inflammatory disease

(PID) and subsequent

infertility?

a. Chlamydia

22. Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina with a copious

yellow discharge

and foul odor?

b. Trichomoniasis

23. What is the cause of syphilis?

d. An anaerobic spirochete

24. Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to

the fetus during

delivery?

a. Gonorrhea

b. Chlamydia

c. Herpes simplex

d. All of these

ANS: D

25. Which of the following STDs is considered to be a systemic infection?

c. Syphilis

26. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial

prostatitis?

d. E. coli

27. The most common solid tumor found in young men is

b. testicular cancer.

28. A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of

a. prostatic cancer.

29. How do testicular tumors usually present?

c. Hard, painless unilateral mass

30. Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual periods?

d. Metrorrhagia

31. Which statement does NOT apply to vaginal candidiasis?

a. It is classified as an STD.

32. Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the

c. pelvic lymph nodes.

33. When the uterus is located in the vagina with the cervix at the opening to

the vagina, this is

called

b. second-degree prolapse.

34. Painful menstruation is called

c. dysmenorrhea.

35. Vaginal candidiasis is frequently predisposed by

a. systemic antibacterial therapy.

36. A chancre is best described as

d. a firm painless ulcerated nodule.

37. Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast

cancer in order to

b. destroy any micrometastases.

38. Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because

d. chromosomal disorder.

  1. Agents that cause damage during embryonic or fetal development are called a. teratogenic.
  2. What is an example of a multifactorial congenital disorder? d. Cleft lip and palate
  3. Ultrasonography during pregnancy would be helpful in detecting fetal b. structural anomalies.
  4. Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is TRUE? a. The typical physical characteristics are present at birth.
  5. Which of the following statements applies to Huntington’s disease? b. There is a test for the defective gene.
  6. A mother is a carrier of Duchenne muscular dystrophy; the father is unaffected. They have one son with muscular dystrophy. Another male child is expected. The probability of the second son having muscular dystrophy is b. 50%.
  7. Hemophilia A has been diagnosed in a young boy. He has inherited this defective gene from b. his mother.
  8. A father affected with hemophilia A, whose wife is unaffected, will pass on the defective gene to c. all of his daughters, who will be carriers.
  9. Which of the following are common manifestations of Down syndrome?
  10. Congenital heart defect
  11. Large protruding tongue
  12. Limited intellectual development d. 1, 3, 4 ANS: D
  13. A spontaneous alteration in genetic material that may result from exposure to harmful substances is termed d. mutation.
  14. A person with sickle cell trait that is heterozygous has a. an incomplete dominant gene.
  15. TORCH is an acronym for routine prenatal screening tests for high-risk maternal infections; TORCH stands for a. toxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis B, mumps, rubeola, varicella, gonorrhea, syphilis), rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes.
  16. Which statement applies to the effects of exposure to harmful substances during embryonic life?
  17. During the first two weeks, exposure will usually cause death of the embryo.
  18. Organs or body structures may be altered by exposure during the first two months.
  19. The effects of exposure depend on the stage of development at the time of exposure. c. 1, 2, 3 ANS: C
  1. Exposure to cocaine during pregnancy leads to increased risk of a. premature birth. b. respiratory problems. c. sudden infant death syndrome. d. A, B, and C. ANS: D
  2. Which term refers to prenatal diagnosis through examination of amniotic fluid? c. Amniocentesis
  3. The laboratory practice of changing DNA sequences in microorganisms is called c. genetic engineering.
  4. The purpose of the Human Genome Project was to a. map the nucleotide sequence and identify the genes on each human chromosome.
  5. Developmental disorders can result from all the following EXCEPT d. folic acid.
  6. Genes located at the same site on a pair of homologous chromosomes that are also matched for function are called a. alleles.
  7. Which of the following can easily pass through the placental barrier? a. Many viruses b. Some heavy metals c. Certain chemicals d. All of these ANS: D

27. The term proteomics refers to the study of

c. the proteins resulting from activation of specific genes.

  1. The most invasive prenatal screening test for fetal abnormalities is b. amniocentesis.
  2. Which of the following can be detected using amniotic fluid? a. Chromosomal abnormalities b. Metabolic disorders c. Certain structural abnormalities d. All of these ANS: D
  3. Blood tests are performed on neonates primarily to b. identify disorders requiring immediate treatment.
  4. When genetic influences combine with environmental factors to cause an abnormality, the result is called a c. multifactorial disorder.
  5. The cellular division process that produces the chromosomes that are in the sperm and ova is called a. meiosis.
  6. The testing of neonates for congenital metabolic disorders such as PKU is generally done c. 48 hours after birth.
  7. The 23rd pair of chromosomes in the male karyotype is c. XY.

c. increased occurrence in infants and young children.

  1. Which of the following vitamins is essential in promoting normal bone mineralization and also plays a supportive role in the immune system? c. D
  2. Which of the following conditions is also called hunchback or humpback? a. Kyphosis
  3. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the b. Epstein-Barr virus.
  4. Dysmenorrhea refers to the c. discomfort during the first or second day of menstruation.
  5. Dysmenorrhea is generally treated with d. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging VanMeter: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE
  6. All of the following changes are associated with aging EXCEPT c. decreased secretion of all hormones.
  7. Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following EXCEPT d. decreased parathyroid hormone.
  8. Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased
  9. tissue elasticity.
  10. rib mobility.
  11. skeletal muscle strength. d. 1, 2, 4
  12. Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the eyeball becomes less elastic, thus preventing accommodation and resulting in a. presbyopia.
  13. What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly? b. Cumulative exposure to carcinogens
  14. Senescence refers to the period of time when d. cell death exceeds cell replacement.
  15. Theories about the causes of aging include a. apoptosis. b. wear and tear. c. altered protein (amyloid) accumulation. d. all of these. ANS: D
  16. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the increasing life span of the general population? a. Reduced cognitive and social activities
  17. The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is a. menopause.
  18. Recommendations to reduce the risk factors and the progression of osteoporosis with aging

include b. maintaining walking and weight-bearing exercise.

  1. All are physiological changes that occur with aging EXCEPT c. increased basal metabolic rate (BMR).
  2. With advancing age, the major change in the cardiovascular system involves c. vascular degeneration, leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.
  3. Which of the following factors lead to delayed wound healing in the elderly?
  4. Reduced rate of mitosis
  5. Inadequate circulation
  6. High risk of infection d. 1, 2, 3 ANS: D
  7. Which of the following may develop in an elderly patient who has several medical problems and is markedly obese? a. Osteoarthritis and cardiovascular complications b. Decreased activity and diabetes mellitus c. Undesirable interactions with multiple prescription drugs and over-the-counter (OTC) medications d. A, B, and C ANS: D
  8. Which of the following is directly correlated with signs of aging? b. Telomere shorteninglOMoARcPSD|