Multiple Choice Questions on Human Physiology and Pathology, Study notes of Pathophysiology

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2022/2023

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1. cyA client has arrived in the emergency department with hives, pruritis, and painfully
swollen skin. Which of the following describes the chemical mediators that are released
during this inflammatory response?
A. Growth factors and cell enzymes
B. Histamine and prostaglandins
C. Albumin and fibrinogen
D. Macrophages and neutrophils
2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the role of histamine and
seasonal allergies?
A. Histamine is primarily stored in phagocyte cells in the skin which are released in
response to antibodies
B. Histamine constricts vessels, causing capillaries to become more permeable and
“Leaky”
C. Histamine Is inhibited by antigens, leading to the signs and symptoms of allergies
D. Histamine dilates the vessels in the nose, causing the nose to become congested.
3. A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracotomy and/or chest tube placement
as treatment for which component of the pathophysiology of this condition?
A. An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which makes it difficult for the
lungs to exchange gases
B. Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli
C. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space, affecting both the lungs
in heart.
D. Extreme pain caused by a fractured rib, which can reduce expansion of thoracic
cavity.
4. How does severe hypoxia develop with pneumonia?
A. Oxygen diffusion is impaired by the congestion
B. Inflammatory exudate absorbs oxygen from the alveolar air
C. Infection reduces effective compensation by the heart
D. Acidosis depresses respirations
5. what is the pathologic collection of fluid or pus in the pleural cavity called?
A. Pleural effusion
B. Pleural exhibit
C. Pleural overload
D. Pulmonary edema
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  1. cyA client has arrived in the emergency department with hives, pruritis, and painfully swollen skin. Which of the following describes the chemical mediators that are released during this inflammatory response? A. Growth factors and cell enzymes B. Histamine and prostaglandins C. Albumin and fibrinogen D. Macrophages and neutrophils
  2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the role of histamine and seasonal allergies? A. Histamine is primarily stored in phagocyte cells in the skin which are released in response to antibodies B. Histamine constricts vessels, causing capillaries to become more permeable and “Leaky” C. Histamine Is inhibited by antigens, leading to the signs and symptoms of allergies D. Histamine dilates the vessels in the nose, causing the nose to become congested.
  3. A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracotomy and/or chest tube placement as treatment for which component of the pathophysiology of this condition? A. An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which makes it difficult for the lungs to exchange gases B. Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli C. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space, affecting both the lungs in heart. D. Extreme pain caused by a fractured rib, which can reduce expansion of thoracic cavity.
  4. How does severe hypoxia develop with pneumonia? A. Oxygen diffusion is impaired by the congestion B. Inflammatory exudate absorbs oxygen from the alveolar air C. Infection reduces effective compensation by the heart D. Acidosis depresses respirations
  5. what is the pathologic collection of fluid or pus in the pleural cavity called? A. Pleural effusion B. Pleural exhibit C. Pleural overload D. Pulmonary edema
  1. Which two diseases could result in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Emphysema and Chronic bronchitis B. Congestive heart failure and emphysema C. Asthma and chronic bronchitis D. Congestive heart failure and obstructive sleep apnea
  2. How is my mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that causes tuberculosis (TB), transmitted to others? A. Airborne droplets inhaled into the lungs B. Skin to skin contact with the infected person C. Oral-fecal transmission from poor hygiene D. Walking barefoot outdoors
  3. The most common cause of bacterial pneumonia is which of the following microorganisms? A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Histoplasmosis C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Escherichia coli
  4. The nurse is reviewing a client lab results. the nurse knows the client with a pH of 7. and pCO2 of 55 mmHg has which acid/base imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis
  5. The nurse expects to assess for which symptom in a client with atopic dermatitis? A. Pruritis B. Leprosy C. Polyphagia D. Abdominal pain
  6. Which of the following is true regarding a third-degree burn? A. The burn only affects the epidermal layer of skin B. the burn extends into the deep tissues and has blackened skin C. the burn extends into the dermal layer and may blister D. is also referred to as partial-thickens burn
  1. What symptom would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Normal lung sounds B. Onset of the disease during young adult hood C. Dyspnea on exertion D. Normal arterial blood gases
  2. Which of the following would result from hyperventilation? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
  3. Which of the following is true regarding hypoventilation? A. The amount of air entering the alveoli increases B. The PaCO2 exceeds 45 mm Hg C. Hypocapnia occurs D. It is a normal response to high altitude
  4. A client presents with the following arterial blood gas results: pH= 7.30, PaCO2 = 55mm Hg, HCO3= 24 mEq/L. This would be classified as which of the following acid/base imbalances? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis
  5. What is a common finding in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? A. Peripheral edema B. Retention of oxygen C. Severe hypoxemia D. Hypertension
  6. Which of the following describes how the body compensates for metabolic acidosis? A. Increasing respirations B. Increasing bicarbonate ion excretion through urination C. Hypoventilation D. Decreasing respirations
  7. Orthopnea is defined as which of the following? A. Waking up suddenly, coughing and struggling for breath B. Difficulty breathing when lying down C. Very deep, rapid respirations D. Noisy breathing with stridor or rhonchi
  1. Following can cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and subsequent infertility? A. Trichomoniasis B. Genital warts C. Chlamydia D. Herpes simplex
  2. Which of the following is the cause of severe pain during each menstrual cycle in the client with endometriosis? A. inflammation caused by trapped blood irritating the endometrial tissue B. Hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions C. Obstruction in the fallopian tubes due to the presence of fibrosis D. Uterus perforation due to the presence of bacteria
  3. Which of the following conditions is characterized by malignant granulocytes that carry a unique chromosomal abnormality? A. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma B. Chronic myeloid leukemia C. Melanoma D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  4. Acute chest pain syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition that causes chest pain, coughing, dyspnea, and fever is associated with which of the following disorders? A. Epstein Barr Virus B. Sickle cell disease C. Hemophilia D. Iron deficiency anemia
  5. Pancytopenia Is described as which of the following? A. Lack of erythrocytes, hemoglobin, and hematocrit B. Lack of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. C. Lack of erythrocytes, platelets, and basophils D. Lack of leukocytes, erythrocytes, and neutrophils
  6. Which of the following steps happens first during hemostasis? A. Platelet plug B. Dissolving of the clot C. Vascular spasm D. Coagulation
  1. Which of the following clients would be most at risk for an intestinal obstruction? A. An elderly individual on bedrest because of post-operative abdominal surgery B. An individual diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver C. An individual eating a low-fiber, high-fat diet D. An individual who smokes and consumes large amounts of caffeine
  2. A Nurse educator is teaching a group of student nurses about the sign and symptoms of thyroid storm. Which findings will be included in the teaching? A. Nausea, bradycardia, and severe headache B. Fever, tachycardia, and systolic hypertension C. Hypotension, translucent skin, and obesity D. Profuse sweating, flushing, and constipation
  3. A client with pheochromocytoma is scheduled to have the tumor surgically removed. During the admission assessment, which finding is the nurse most likely to observe? A. Bradycardia B. Hyperthermia C. Hypertension D. Hyperkalemia
  4. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in clients with Cushing syndrome? A. Hyperpigmentation B. Excessive production of glucocorticoids C. Insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D. Exophthalmos
  5. Which of the following describes passive immunity? A. Cuts or wounds which are infected and heal B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby C. Vaccination against the disease D. Having the disease in question
  6. Which type of white blood cells play a role in cell mediated immunity? A. Monocyte B. Neutrophils C. Macrophages D. Lymphocytes
  7. Which of the following is true regarding polycystic kidney disease? A. The prognosis is good because the disorder resolves on its own B. The kidneys are displaced, and the ureters are twisted C. It results in gradual degeneration of the kidneys D. It affects only one of the kidneys
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated with over secretion of renin? A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Renal calculi D. Diabetes insipidus
  2. Which of the following occurs with Hepatitis B? A. Hepatocytes cannot regenerate when the virus is present B. Blood clotting delays are apparent at onset C. The liver is inflamed and enlarged D. Infection is self-limiting
  3. Dysfunction of which organ is associated with the development of esophageal varices? A. Kidney B. Spleen C. Liver D. Pancreas
  4. Which of the following can occur with clients who have hyponatremia? A. Increased energy and mental clarity B. Weak peripheral pulses C. Thirst and dry mouth D. Potentially fatal brain swelling
  5. Clinical manifestations of fluid volume overload include which of the following? A. Dyspnea, bounding pulses, and crackles B. Bounding pulses, crackles, and hypotension C. Thirst, oliguria, and weight loss D. Dyspnea, and dry, thick mucus membranes
  6. Which of the following stores electrolytes and acts as an electrolyte pool? A. Brain B. kidneys C. Bone D. Nails
  7. Electrolyte movement across the capillary wall occurs through which of the following processes? A. Gas exchange B. Diffusion C. Filtration D. Osmosis
  1. The client has been diagnosed with acromegaly. The nurse understands this condition can be caused by which of the following? A. An overactive pituitary gland B. An underactive pituitary gland C. An underactive adrenal gland D. An overactive adrenal gland
  2. A Sprain is classified as an injury due to stretching or tearing of which of the following structures? A. Ligament B. Fascia C. Muscle D. Tendon
  3. A teenage athlete experiences a sudden impact to his shoulder during a football game, causing it to move out of its original position. Which of the following musculoskeletal disorders did the client most likely experience? A. Bone facture B. Strain C. Sprain D. Shoulder dislocation
  4. Which of the following hormones do the kidney secrete to increase red blood cell production? A. Testosterone B. Erythropoietin C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Insulin and glycogen
  5. Which disease process is also known as “the kissing disease”? A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Coxsackie C. Pityriasis rosea D. Guillan-Barre syndrome
  6. Which of the following is considered a macrocytic anemia? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Thalassemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Pernicious anemia
  1. In pernicious anemia, intrinsic factor is not being secreted by which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa? A. Langerhans B. Visceral C. Chief D. Parietal
  2. Which is true regarding hemophilia A? A. It affects more females than males B. It is an X linked dominant disorder C. it is also known as “Christmas disease” D. it is caused by factor VIII deficiency
  3. Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disorder of which of the following region of the brain? A. Basal ganglia B. Hypothalamus C. Frontal Lobe D. Anterior pituitary
  4. Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through vascular tangles of abnormal vessels? A. Arteriovenous angioma B. Arteriovenous malformation C. Cavernous angioma D. Capillary telangiectasia
  5. Which of the following describes a cerebral aneurysm? A. A type of head bleed B. A dilation (ballooning) of a portion of a blood vessel C. An area of thickening withing a vessel D. A benign brain injury
  6. What are the hallmark changes in the brain in an individual with Alzheimer’s disease? A. Decrease production of dopamine and dopamine receptors B. The presence of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques C. Demyelination of the cranial nerve neurons D. Increased production of acetylcholine and destruction of acetylcholine
  1. The client with pale, cold, clammy skin, a rapid and weak pulse, tachypnea, and an altered level of consciousness may be experiencing which of the following conditions? A. Shock B. Hypertension C. Heart failure D. Atherosclerosis
  2. Identify which clinical manifestation is a common finding of all forms of heart failure? A. Peripheral edema B. Jugular venous distention C. Reduced cardiac output D. Pulmonary edema
  3. Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension? A. The heart and kidneys B. The stomach and intestines C. The brain and skin D. The bladder and urethra
  4. A client with heart failure reports awakening intermittently with shortness of breath. Which term appropriately describes this clinical manifestation? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal B. Bradypnea C. Dyspnea D. Cyanosis
  5. Which of the following is a component of the pathophysiology of shock which causes lactic acid to accumulate in the body? A. Tissue hypoxia B. Vasoconstriction C. Tissue Hyperoxia D. Vasodilation
  6. Which of the following clinical manifestations are present in anaphylactic shock? A. Airway obstruction and hypotension B. Airway dilation and hypertension C. Tachypnea and airway dilation D. Tachycardia and hypertension
  1. A five-year-old continues to wet the bed while sleeping and has even urinated during his kindergarten class in front of his peers. This condition is known as which of the following? A. Stress incontinence B. Overflow incontinence C. Normal Micturition D. Enuresis
  2. What causes the dark urine associated with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis? A. Blood and protein leaking through the capillary into the filtrate B. Proteinuria and microscopic hematuria from inflammation C. Pyuria from inflammatory exudate D. Bleeding from ulcerations in the kidneys
  3. Which type of seizures result in abnormal neuronal activity in both hemispheres of the brain? A. Generalized seizures B. Partial seizures C. Automatisms D. Focal seizures
  4. What are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury? A. Confusion, irritability, and retrograde amnesia B. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis C. Hypertension, neurogenic shock, and tachycardia D. Headache, bradycardia, and elevated blood pressure
  5. The clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease (PD) include which of the following? A. Muscle weakness, difficulty chewing, and drooping eyelids B. Muscle tremor, slow, rigid movements, and postural abnormalities C. Paralysis and absent sensation below the level of the lesion D. Decreased memory, depression, and indifference
  6. The nurse assesses a 27-year-old female client who presents with muscle weakness and decreased muscle coordination over the past few months. What nervous system disease is she most likely suffering from? A. Stroke B. Multiple Sclerosis C. Parkinson’s disease D. Guillain-Barre syndrome
  1. Valve stenosis results in which of the following alterations in blood flow through the heart? A. Blood flows backward across the valve, causing rupture of the heart chambers B. Blood flows backward across the valve because it does not close fully C. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve due to a problem with the papillary muscle D. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve because it does not open fully
  2. The condition where fat-containing substances are deposited on the coronary artery lumens causing the arteries to narrow is known as which of the following? A. Cerebral artery disease B. Ischemia C. Coronary artery disease D. Congestive heart failure
  3. Massive blood loss or dehydration could potentially lead to which type of shock? A. Neurogenic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Distributive shock D. Hypovolemic shock
  4. Infective endocarditis is an infection that affects which parts of the cardiovascular system? A. The endocardium or heart valves B. The aorta or vena cava C. The left or right ventricle D. The left or right atria
  5. Which of the following factors describe the Virchow triad? (Select all that apply.) A. Hypercoagulability B. Damage to the arterial wall C. Venous blood hypermobility D. Sluggish blood flow E. Endothelial injury
  6. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a client with a concussion? (Select all that apply.) A. Increased level of consciousness (LOC) B. Nausea C. Vomiting D. Emotional disturbances E. Headache
  1. Which of the following are the most common clinical manifestations of cystitis (Select all that apply.) A. Pain in the suprapubic area B. Dysuria C. Fever D. Urinary frequency E. Hypotension 100 Which of the are clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure? (Select all that apply.) A. Peripheral edema B. Cough with frothy sputum C. Jugular venous distention D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs E. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea