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A set of practice exam questions and answers for the scrum developer certified (sdc) certification. It covers key concepts and principles of the scrum framework, including roles, events, artifacts, and empirical process control. The questions are designed to test understanding and application of scrum principles in real-world scenarios, making it a valuable resource for exam preparation and reinforcing knowledge of scrum methodologies. Each question includes a detailed explanation of the correct answer, enhancing learning and comprehension. This practice exam is useful for anyone preparing for the sdc certification or looking to deepen their understanding of scrum.
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Question 1. What is the primary purpose of the Scrum framework? A) To control costs B) To deliver value through iterative development C) To document requirements D) To eliminate project risks Answer: B Explanation: Scrum focuses on delivering value incrementally and iteratively, ensuring adaptability and continuous improvement. Question 2. Which principle emphasizes learning through experience in Scrum? A) Time-boxing B) Empirical Process Control C) Value-based Prioritization D) Self-Organization Answer: B Explanation: Empirical process control relies on transparency, inspection, and adaptation to guide the project using real data. Question 3. What distinguishes Scrum from traditional Waterfall methodology? A) Fixed phases and documentation B) Iterative and incremental development C) Sequential process steps D) No stakeholder involvement Answer: B Explanation: Scrum uses iterations (Sprints) and delivers increments, allowing frequent review and adaptation.
Question 4. Who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product in Scrum? A) Scrum Master B) Product Owner C) Developer D) Stakeholder Answer: B Explanation: The Product Owner manages the backlog and prioritizes work to ensure maximum product value. Question 5. Which Scrum principle supports team autonomy in decision-making? A) Iterative Development B) Self-Organization C) Collaboration D) Time-boxing Answer: B Explanation: Self-Organization empowers teams to make decisions about how best to achieve goals. Question 6. What are the three pillars of empirical process control in Scrum? A) Planning, Execution, Review B) Transparency, Inspection, Adaptation C) Value, Quality, Change D) Risk, Scope, Schedule Answer: B Explanation: These pillars enable teams to learn and adapt based on actual progress and observations.
Question 10. What does the Scrum Team demonstrate in the Sprint Review? A) Project plan B) Product Increment C) Budget report D) Risk log Answer: B Explanation: The team showcases the completed increment to stakeholders for feedback and validation. Question 11. Which role manages and prioritizes the Prioritized Product Backlog? A) Scrum Master B) Developer C) Product Owner D) Stakeholder Answer: C Explanation: The Product Owner is accountable for the backlog’s content and prioritization. Question 12. What is the function of the Scrum Guidance Body? A) Setting organizational policies B) Managing daily tasks C) Prioritizing backlog items D) Approving sprints Answer: A Explanation: The Scrum Guidance Body provides guidelines and standards for Scrum projects. Question 13. How does Scrum handle changes during a Sprint?
A) All changes are allowed B) Changes are managed via Sprint Backlog and backlog refinement C) No changes allowed until release D) Only the Scrum Master can approve changes Answer: B Explanation: Changes are managed through backlog refinement and may be deferred to future sprints. Question 14. What is the purpose of the Daily Standup? A) Report to management B) Synchronize team activities and identify impediments C) Review financials D) Approve product increments Answer: B Explanation: The Daily Standup is for team members to share progress, plans, and blockers. Question 15. Which process phase involves creating the project vision? A) Implement B) Initiate C) Release D) Plan and Estimate Answer: B Explanation: The Initiate phase establishes the project vision and sets the foundation for Scrum. Question 16. What is the Definition of Done (DoD)? A) List of tasks
B) 1-4 weeks C) 1 month D) 6 months Answer: B Explanation: Sprints commonly last 1-4 weeks, providing a regular cadence for delivery and review. Question 20. Who can attend the Sprint Retrospective? A) Only Developers B) Scrum Team members C) Only Product Owner D) Stakeholders Answer: B Explanation: The Retrospective includes all Scrum Team members to discuss improvements. Question 21. What is the purpose of backlog grooming (refinement)? A) Assigning tasks B) Clarifying and estimating backlog items C) Approving releases D) Deleting old items Answer: B Explanation: Grooming ensures backlog items are clear, prioritized, and ready for future sprints. Question 22. What technique is commonly used for User Story estimation? A) Critical path analysis B) Planning Poker
C) SWOT analysis D) Fishbone diagram Answer: B Explanation: Planning Poker uses consensus-based estimation with story points. Question 23. Which role acts as a servant leader in Scrum? A) Product Owner B) Scrum Master C) Developer D) Stakeholder Answer: B Explanation: The Scrum Master serves the team by facilitating and supporting their work. Question 24. What is a key benefit of time-boxing in Scrum? A) Unlimited meetings B) Predictable delivery and focus C) Fixed requirements D) Detailed upfront planning Answer: B Explanation: Time-boxing ensures focus and predictability in delivering increments. Question 25. Which aspect of Scrum focuses on handling risks? A) Organization B) Risk Management C) Quality
Answer: B Explanation: The Sprint Backlog outlines the work the team commits to complete during the Sprint. Question 29. What is the role of Acceptance Criteria in Scrum? A) Track team attendance B) Define conditions for User Story completion C) Approve releases D) Assign tasks Answer: B Explanation: Acceptance Criteria specify what must be true for a User Story to be accepted as done. Question 30. What is Continuous Integration (CI) in Scrum? A) Deploying once per release B) Frequently integrating and testing code C) Writing documentation D) Skipping code reviews Answer: B Explanation: CI ensures code changes are integrated and tested regularly, supporting quality and early detection of defects. Question 31. What distinguishes a shippable Product Increment? A) Contains unfinished features B) Meets Definition of Done C) Is partially tested D) Is not reviewed
Answer: B Explanation: A shippable increment meets the DoD and is ready for potential release. Question 32. What is the main function of the Sprint Review? A) Plan future sprints B) Demonstrate completed work to stakeholders C) Assign tasks D) Track risks Answer: B Explanation: The Sprint Review is an opportunity to present the increment and receive feedback. Question 33. What does the Product Owner use to prioritize work? A) Task list B) Prioritized Product Backlog C) Release notes D) Meeting agenda Answer: B Explanation: The Product Owner prioritizes items in the Product Backlog to maximize value. Question 34. What is a risk in Scrum terminology? A) An impediment B) A potential event affecting objectives C) A completed task D) A backlog item Answer: B
Question 38. What is the difference between a risk and an issue? A) No difference B) Risk is potential; issue has already happened C) Risk is positive; issue is negative D) Issue is a backlog item Answer: B Explanation: Risks are possible future events; issues are present problems to resolve. Question 39. What is the main objective of the Implement phase? A) Write documentation B) Develop deliverables and synchronize work C) Approve budgets D) Assign roles Answer: B Explanation: The Implement phase is focused on creating product increments and daily coordination. Question 40. Which process involves decomposing large requirements? A) Release Planning B) Develop Epic(s) and Create Prioritized Product Backlog C) Sprint Review D) Daily Standup Answer: B Explanation: Epics are broken down into manageable stories in the backlog.
Question 41. What is Pair Programming? A) Two developers working together on the same code B) Rotating team roles C) Group code review D) Writing documentation together Answer: A Explanation: Pair Programming improves quality and knowledge sharing. Question 42. What is the purpose of the Initiate Phase in Scrum? A) Final product release B) Set vision, form team, and prepare backlog C) Daily synchronization D) Quality assurance Answer: B Explanation: Initiate lays the foundation for the Scrum project. Question 43. What is the output of Release Planning? A) Project vision statement B) Release schedule and feature delivery plan C) Completed increment D) Sprint Backlog Answer: B Explanation: Release Planning determines when features will be delivered. Question 44. What is the significance of the INVEST criteria for User Stories?
A) Detailed specification B) Short description of a feature from the end-user’s perspective C) Budget item D) Release note Answer: B Explanation: User Stories capture requirements in a simple, user-focused format. Question 48. What does the Scrum Master do during Daily Standups? A) Lead discussion and solve problems B) Facilitate and ensure focus C) Assign work D) Write code Answer: B Explanation: The Scrum Master facilitates standups, helping the team stay on track. Question 49. What is the advantage of frequent feedback in Scrum? A) Increases documentation B) Reduces risk and improves product quality C) Delays product delivery D) Removes stakeholder involvement Answer: B Explanation: Regular feedback allows for early detection of problems and better alignment with user needs. Question 50. What is backlog refinement?
A) Assigning tasks B) Ongoing process of improving and clarifying backlog items C) Sprint planning D) Product release Answer: B Explanation: Refinement keeps the backlog clear, prioritized, and ready for development. Question 51. What is a Sprint Goal? A) Budget target B) Overall objective for the Sprint C) List of tasks D) Release schedule Answer: B Explanation: The Sprint Goal gives the team a shared purpose for the Sprint. Question 52. What is the role of the Chief Product Owner in scaling Scrum? A) Manages all teams’ backlog priorities B) Writes user stories C) Approves increments D) Facilitates meetings Answer: A Explanation: The Chief Product Owner coordinates backlog priorities across multiple teams. Question 53. What is Scrum of Scrums? A) A meeting of all Developers
C) Sprint Backlog D) Task Board Answer: B Explanation: The Product Backlog is the central place for all requirements. Question 57. What is the purpose of the Demonstrate and Validate Sprint process? A) Test code only B) Show completed increment to stakeholders for validation C) Assign tasks D) Write documentation Answer: B Explanation: Demonstration and validation ensure the increment meets user needs and acceptance criteria. Question 58. What is the relationship between quality, scope, and business value in Scrum? A) Quality and scope drive business value B) Quality is independent of business value C) Only scope matters D) Scope is not related Answer: A Explanation: High quality and appropriate scope ensure delivered business value. Question 59. What is the risk management procedure in Scrum? A) Identify, Assess, Mitigate, Communicate B) Document, Approve, Release, Review
C) Ignore risks D) Assign to Product Owner Answer: A Explanation: Scrum uses a structured approach to manage risks throughout the project. Question 60. What is a shippable increment in Scrum? A) Incomplete work B) Fully developed, tested, and accepted product increment C) Unreviewed code D) Planned feature Answer: B Explanation: A shippable increment meets all criteria and is ready for release. Question 61. What is the role of stakeholders in Scrum? A) Manage backlog B) Provide feedback and requirements C) Assign tasks D) Estimate stories Answer: B Explanation: Stakeholders support the team by sharing feedback and clarifying needs. Question 62. What is the importance of executive support for Scrum adoption? A) Ensures authority and resources for successful implementation B) Delays project C) Removes team autonomy