ACE Personal Trainer Exam, Exams of Advanced Education

ACE Personal Trainer ExamACE Personal Trainer Exam

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2025/2026

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ACE Personal Trainer Exam
Static Stretching - correct answer ✔✔Most common stretching technique
-Extending the targeted muscle group to its max point and holding it for 30 sec or
more.
2 Forms:
-Active- Added force is applied by the individual
-Passive- Added force is applied by an external force
Dynamic Stretching - correct answer ✔✔-Continuous movement patterns that mimic
the exercise or sport to be performed.
-Purpose is to improve flexibility for a given sport or activity
Ballistic Stretching - correct answer ✔✔-Used for athletic drills
-Repeated bouncing movement to stretch targeted muscle group.
-Triggers stretch reflex and may increase risk for injury
-Safe if done from low to high-velocity and followed by static stretching
Active Isolated Stretching (AIS) - correct answer ✔✔-Held only 2 seconds at a time.
-Several sets with specific # of reps and gradually increase resistance by a few
degrees each rep
Myofascial Release - correct answer ✔✔-Uses a foam roller (or something similar)
-Relieves tension and improves flexibility in the FASCIA (system of connective
tissues that covers the whole body) and underlying muscle. -Small continuous back-
and-forth movements
-Over an area of 2-6 in. for 30-60 sec
-Amount of pressure is determined by client's pain tolerance
Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) - correct answer ✔✔-Use of
AUTOGENIC and RECIPROCAL inhibition
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ACE Personal Trainer Exam

Static Stretching - correct answer ✔✔Most common stretching technique -Extending the targeted muscle group to its max point and holding it for 30 sec or more. 2 Forms: -Active- Added force is applied by the individual -Passive- Added force is applied by an external force Dynamic Stretching - correct answer ✔✔-Continuous movement patterns that mimic the exercise or sport to be performed. -Purpose is to improve flexibility for a given sport or activity Ballistic Stretching - correct answer ✔✔-Used for athletic drills -Repeated bouncing movement to stretch targeted muscle group. -Triggers stretch reflex and may increase risk for injury -Safe if done from low to high-velocity and followed by static stretching Active Isolated Stretching (AIS) - correct answer ✔✔-Held only 2 seconds at a time. -Several sets with specific # of reps and gradually increase resistance by a few degrees each rep Myofascial Release - correct answer ✔✔-Uses a foam roller (or something similar) -Relieves tension and improves flexibility in the FASCIA (system of connective tissues that covers the whole body) and underlying muscle. -Small continuous back- and-forth movements -Over an area of 2-6 in. for 30-60 sec -Amount of pressure is determined by client's pain tolerance Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) - correct answer ✔✔-Use of AUTOGENIC and RECIPROCAL inhibition

-3 forms: -Hold-Relax -Contract-Relax -Hold-Relax with agonist contraction Hold-Relax PNF - correct answer ✔✔1) Passive 10-sec pre-stretch

  1. Hold and resist applied force, causing isometric contraction in the target muscle group, for 6 secs
  2. Relax muscle group and passively stretch; hold for 30 sec to increase ROM
  3. Greater stretch in final phase due to AUTOGENIC inhibition Contract-Relax PNF - correct answer ✔✔1) Passive 10-sec pre-stretch
  4. Trainer applies resistance, counteracting client's force of concentric contraction of target muscle group, w/out completely restricting joint through its ROM. 3)Relax muscle group and passively stretch; hold for 30 sec to increase ROM
  5. Greater stretch during final phase due to AUTOGENIC inhibition Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction PNF - correct answer ✔✔1)Relax muscle group and passively stretch.
  6. Concentrically contract opposing muscle group (of muscle group that's targeted); hold for 30 sec to increase ROM
  7. Greater stretch during final phase due to RECIPROCAL and AUTOGENIC inhibition Health Risk Appraisal - correct answer ✔✔-A screening that addresses: -signs and symptoms of disease -risk factors -family history -Info can help ID the presence of CVD, Pulmonary, or other diseases. PAR-Q - correct answer ✔✔-Brief, self-administered medical questionnaire

-I.E. Seated leg extension, Leg Curl, Bench Press, Dumbbell Biceps Curl, Lat Pull- Down Closed Kinetic Chain Movement - correct answer ✔✔-DISTAL segment has external resistance and it restrains movement -Distal end of extremity is fixed, emphasizing joint compression and stabilizing the joint. -Considered more functional. -I.E. Squat, Leg Press, Wall Slides, Lunges, Elliptical Training, Stair Stepper, Versa Climber, Push-ups The Thomas Test - correct answer ✔✔-Quick/Simple assessment that examines length of muscles involved in hip flexion -Length helps determine tightness of primary hip flexor muscles (RECTUS FEMORIS, ILLIOPSOAS, ILLIOTIBIAL band)

  1. Have client sit on bench/table on their ISCHAL TUBEROSITY (the boney point we normally sit on)
  2. Take client back until lying in supine position w/ less than 1/2 the thigh off bench/table. LUMBAR region of back in contact w/ bench
  3. Have client bring both knees toward chest and then release 1 leg so it's extended and touches bench Good Flexibility in the ILLIOPSOAS - correct answer ✔✔Assessment of Thomas Test - -What it means when client's lower leg touches the surface...? The individual has tight hip flexors (including RECTUS FEMORIS, ILLIOPSOAS, and ILLIOTIBIAL BAND). - correct answer ✔✔Assessment of Thomas Test - -What it means when client's back of the leg is even slightly off the surface...? Tight RECTUS FEMORIS (crosses the hip and knee joint) - correct answer ✔✔Assessment of Thomas Test - -What it means when client's knee is bent 70 degrees or less The ILLIOTIBIAL BAND is tight - correct answer ✔✔Assessment of Thomas Test -
  • What it means when client's leg abducts or is angled outward during the test False positive of the Thomas Test - ILLIOPSOAS will appear tight when not - correct answer ✔✔If client is pulling their knee toward chest too far and there's a posterior tilt of pelvis, it will be a ... False negative of the Thomas Test - hip flexors with appear fine when they aren't - correct answer ✔✔If client is not pulling their knee back far enough, is lifting the LUMBAR back off the surface (LORDOSIS), or creating a posterior pelvic tilt, it will be a ... Don't perform the Thomas Test - correct answer ✔✔Before assessing your client, ask if they have a sore or injured back. If they answer yes ... Posture - correct answer ✔✔-Biomechanical alignment of individual body parts and orientation of the body Balance - correct answer ✔✔-Maintaining body's position over it's base of support (BOS) w/in stability limits Lordosis - correct answer ✔✔-Increased anterior lumbar curve (bottom and belly out) -Lead to tension on the spine and low-back pain. (A Big Lord with a Big Belly) Kyphosis - correct answer ✔✔-Increased posterior thoracic curve (round shoulders like hunchback) --Commonly seen in older adults w/ OSTEOPOROSIS (Has an "H" in the name, stands for "Hunchback") Flat Back - correct answer ✔✔-Decreased anterior lumbar curve (normal inward curve of back) -Head exhibits a forward tilt. Sway Back - correct answer ✔✔-Decreased anterior lumbar curve

Sagittal Plane - correct answer ✔✔-Divides body into left and right halves. -Any forward/backward movement parallel to line occurs in this plane -Movements: FLEXION, EXTENSION, DORSIFLEXION, & PLANTAR FLEXION. -I.E. Bicep curl, forward, or reverse lunges Frontal Plane - correct answer ✔✔-Divides body into front/back halves -Any lateral (side) movement parallel to line occurs in this plane. -Movements: ADDUCTION, ABDUCTION, ELEVATION, DEPRESSION, INVERSION, and EVERSION -I.E. Dumbbell lateral (side) raise Transverse Plane - correct answer ✔✔-Divides body into top/bottom halves -Movement parallel to waistline (aka rotational movement) occurs in this plane -Movements: ROTATION, PRONATION, SUPINATION, HORIZONTAL FLEXION (ADduction), and HORIZONTAL EXTENSION (ABduction -I.E. Horizontal Wood Chop Flexion - correct answer ✔✔DECREASING angle between two bones Extension - correct answer ✔✔INCREASING angle between two bones Dorsiflexion - correct answer ✔✔Moving TOP of foot toward the shin (only at the ankle) Plantar Flexion - correct answer ✔✔Moving SOLE of foot downward (pointing the toes) Adduction - correct answer ✔✔Motion TOWARD midline Abduction - correct answer ✔✔Motion AWAY from midline

Elevation - correct answer ✔✔Moving to SUPERIOR position (only at the scapula) Depression - correct answer ✔✔Moving to INFERIOR position (only at the scapula) Inversion - correct answer ✔✔Lifting MEDIAL border of foot Eversion - correct answer ✔✔Lifting LATERAL border of foot Rotation - correct answer ✔✔INTERNAL (inward) or EXTERNAL (outward) turning about the vertical axis of the bone Pronation - correct answer ✔✔Rotation the hand and wrist MEDIALLY from the bone Supination - correct answer ✔✔Rotating the hand and wrist LATERALLY from bone Horizontal Flexion (ADDuction) - correct answer ✔✔-From 90-degree abducted arm position, humerus is flexed (adducted) toward the midline in transverse plane Horizontal Extension (ABduction) - correct answer ✔✔Return of humerus from horizontal flexion Body Mass Index (BMI) - correct answer ✔✔-Assesses client's body composition. -Compares body weight to height -Determines # that indicates underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese.

  • ... = Weight(kg)/Height(m)^ Converting Lbs into Kg = (Lbs/2.2) Converting Inches to Meters = (Inches x 2.54) / 100 Underweight - correct answer ✔✔BMI <18.

Respiratory System - correct answer ✔✔-Provides a means to replace O2 and remove CO2 from the blood. -Makes vocalization possible -Important role in regulating acid-base balance during exercise Digestive System - correct answer ✔✔-Ingestion, movement, mechanical prep, & chemical digestion of food -Absorption of digested food into circulatory and lymphatic systems -Elimination of indigestible substances and waste products from body Skeletal System - correct answer ✔✔-Provides support, movement, protection, and formation of blood cells. -206 bones in the body. Nervous System - correct answer ✔✔-Collects info about conditions in relation to body's external state -Analyzes info and initialize responses to fulfill specific needs Muscular System - correct answer ✔✔Responsible for movement of various body parts. 3 types of muscle - skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle. Synergist - correct answer ✔✔-Muscles that assist agonist in causing a desired action -May act as joint stabilizers, neutralize rotation, or be activated when external resistance increases or agonist becomes fatigued Co-Contraction - correct answer ✔✔-When agonist and antagonists contract together and a joint must be stabilized -Important component of functional/usable strength b/c torso muscles must be able to stabilize spine to safely move external resistance Calorie Deficit for Weight Management - correct answer ✔✔3500 calories = 1 pound.

  1. Desired weight loss (lbs) x 3500 (kcal) = Total Cal
  2. Total Cal / Time Period = Calories per Time Period
  3. Calories per Period / 7 (days) = Calorie Deficit per day required
  • DBW = LBW / (1- DBF%) Nutrition Needs for Active Adults - correct answer ✔✔-45 to 65% of cal comes from carbs -10-35% from protein -20-35% from fats Age Predicted Maximum Heart Rate (MHR) - correct answer ✔✔- 220-Age ... x % intensity = Target Heart Rate (THR) Example: 34 year old at 75% intensity 220-34=186 x .75 = 139.5 bpm Karvonen Formula - Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) - correct answer ✔✔220-Age = MHR MHR - RHR = ... (... x % intensity) + RHR = Target Heart Rate (THR) Example: 34 year old, resting heart rate = 62 bpm, at 75% intensity 220-34 = 186 - 62 = 124 x .75 = 93 + 62 = 155 bpm Desired Body Weight (DBW) - correct answer ✔✔... = LBW / (1 - DBF%)
  1. 100% - Fat % = Lean Body %
  2. Body Weight x Lean Body % = LBW
  3. 100% - Desired Fat% = Desired Lean %
  4. LBW / Desired Lean % = ... Fat - correct answer ✔✔9 Calories per Gram

Distal - correct answer ✔✔-Far away from center/middle of body. Lumbar Spine - correct answer ✔✔Needs to be stable Pelvis - correct answer ✔✔Needs to be mobile/move freely Thoracic Spine - correct answer ✔✔-Needs to be mobile -Shoulder attachments, clavicle, ribs, etc. attach to this area -Think about movement that comes from upper back/shoulder/chest area. Scapulothoracic Joint - correct answer ✔✔-Needs to be stable -Where scapula attaches to thorax -More of a spot where the 2 meet, less of a joint. Glenohumeral - correct answer ✔✔-Needs to be mobile -Connection between shoulder and arm. Intensity Measurements - correct answer ✔✔-Heart Rate (either % of MHR or % of HRR) -Rate of Perceived Exertion -VO2 (Aerobic Capacity) -METS (Metabolic Equivalent) -Ventilatory Threshold - VT1 and VT2 (the talk test) Tanaka Formula - correct answer ✔✔- 208 - (0.7 x age) = Max Heart Rate

  • Considered more accurate Rate of Perceived Exertion - correct answer ✔✔-Measure of how client feels -Accounts for psychological, musculoskeletal, & environmental factors. -2 types - BORG and revised BORG

BORG Scale - correct answer ✔✔-Developed by Gunnar Borg -Standard means to evaluate client perception of exercise effort. -Ranges from 6- Revised BORG Scale - correct answer ✔✔-Developed by Gunnar Borg -Ranges from 0- VO2 - correct answer ✔✔-Measures aerobic capacity ...=cardiac output x oxygen extraction -Maximal or submaximal test Metabolic Equivalent (METS) - correct answer ✔✔-Resting oxygen consumption

  • equal to 3.5 ml/kg/min Ventilatory Threshold - VT1 and VT2 - correct answer ✔✔-Transition between aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production. -I.E. talk test VT1 - First Ventilatory Threshold - correct answer ✔✔-Ventilation starts increasing non-linearly VT2 - Second Ventilatory Threshold - correct answer ✔✔-Point that high intensity exercise can't continue b/c of accumulation of lactate 3 Zone Set Up of the IFT Model - correct answer ✔✔- Zone 1 - (VT1) - Zone 2 - (VT2)
  • Zone 3 Below VT1 - correct answer ✔✔-Client can speak comfortably At VT1 - correct answer ✔✔-Client can't speak comfortably

Phase 2) Movement Training Phase 3) Load Training Phase 4) Performance Training Stability and Mobility Training - correct answer ✔✔Phase 1 of Functional Movement and Resistance Training. Focuses on core and balance exercises to improve strength and function of muscles responsible for stabilizing spine and center of gravity during movement. Movement Training - correct answer ✔✔Phase 2 of Functional Movement and Resistance Training. Focuses on developing mobility within the kinetic chain without compromising stability. Load Training - correct answer ✔✔Phase 3 of Functional Movement and Resistance Training. Focus on what we would consider "traditional" resistance training for hypertrophy, strength, or endurance. Performance Training - correct answer ✔✔Phase 4 of Functional Movement and Resistance Training. Focuses on sport specific training for speed, agility, quickness, reactivity, and power. Cardiorespiratory Training - correct answer ✔✔Phase 1) Aerobic Base Training Phase 2) Aerobic Efficiency Training Phase 3) Aerobic Endurance Training Phase 4) Aerobic Power Training Aerobic Base Training - correct answer ✔✔Phase 1 of Cardiorespiratory Training. Focuses on establishing an aerobic base with steady state, low to moderate exercise. Aerobic Efficiency Training - correct answer ✔✔Phase 2 of Cardiorespiratory Training. Focuses on increasing duration and frequency and adding aerobic interval training. May be the highest training level for most clients.

Aerobic Endurance Training - correct answer ✔✔Phase 3 of Cardiorespiratory Training. Focuses on improving performance for endurance events, or training for high levels of cardio fitness) Aerobic Power Training - correct answer ✔✔Phase 4 of Cardiorespiratory Training. Focuses on training for competition or sport specific goals and high intensity training. Motive Force - correct answer ✔✔When the muscle acts with this force, it is acting CONCENTRICALLY - the muscle SHORTENS as it creates muscle tension. Increasing the speed of a movement and dictating the direction. Resistive Force - correct answer ✔✔When the muscle acts with this force, it is acting ECCENTRICALLY - the muscle LENGTHENS as it creates muscle tension. Slowing the effect of gravity, allowing the client to move the weight at a slow controlled pace. Body Composition - correct answer ✔✔The makeup of the body in terms of the relative percentage of fat-free mass and body fat. Tests for ... include :

  • Hydrostatic weighing (underwater weighing) - Best one!
  • Bioelectrical impedance
  • BMI
  • Anthropometric assessments (Circumference measurements, waist - to - hip ratio, skinfold measurements, and girth measurements. Muscular Strength - correct answer ✔✔-Tested w/ 1 RM test -Measure of greatest amount of force that muscles can produce in 1 maximal effort Muscular Endurance - correct answer ✔✔The muscles ability to exert a submaximal force repeatedly over time, such as a half sit up test or a push up test. The FITT Principle - correct answer ✔✔-Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type -Backbone of exercise programming based off ACSM programming guidelines for healthy adults.

-Found:Green leafy veggies, organ meats, dried peas, beans & lentils Vitamin E - correct answer ✔✔-Protects blood cells, body tissue, and essential fatty acids from destruction in body -Found in: Fortified & multigrain cereals, nuts, wheat germ, veg oils, green leafy veggies. Calcium - correct answer ✔✔Strong bones, teeth, muscle tissue; regulates heart beat, muscle action, and nerve function, blood clotting. Iron - correct answer ✔✔Hemoglobin formation; improves blood quality; increases resistance to stress and disease Potassium - correct answer ✔✔Fluid balance, controls activity of heart, nervous system, and kidneys MyPlate - correct answer ✔✔-Government nutrition message -Dinner plate divided into 4 sections: fruit, veggies, protein, & grains, w/ glass of 1% or non-fat milk -Goal is to encourage Americans to eat more balanced diet that's about 50% fruits & veggies. Pre-Workout - correct answer ✔✔-Foods high in carb to maximize blood glucose availability -Low in fat and fiber to minimize gastrointestinal distress and facilitate gastric emptying -Moderate in protein -Well-tolerated by client. Post-Workout - correct answer ✔✔-Foods high in carbs accompanied by some protein -Carbs replenish used-up energy that's stored as glycogen in muscles and liver -Protein will help rebuild fatigued muscles

Carbohydrates - correct answer ✔✔-Only macronutrient whose stored energy generates ATP anaerobically -Crucial during max exercise that requires rapid energy release above levels supplied by aerobic metabolism. Phosphagen System - correct answer ✔✔-VERY RAPID rate of ATP production -High-intensity, very-short duration Anaerobic Glycolysis System - correct answer ✔✔-RAPID rate of ATP production -High-intensity, short-duration Aerobic Glycolysis System - correct answer ✔✔-SLOW rate of ATP production -Lower-intensity, longer- duration Hot Exercise Environment - correct answer ✔✔-Reduces ability to lose heat through radiation, convection, & evaporation -Clients at higher risk for hyperthermia due to greater core temp and higher sweat rate. Steps to reduce risk of dehydration and hyperthermia:

  1. Heat Acclimation - process of physiological adaptation to heat
  2. Appropriate amount of fluid before and during exercise Type 1 Fibers - correct answer ✔✔-AKA Slow twitch muscle fibers -Muscle fiber type designed for aerobic glycolysis & fatty acid oxidation -Used in low-intensity, longer duration (i.e. walking & swimming) Type 2 Fibers - correct answer ✔✔-Found in skeletal muscle tissue -AKA fast twitch fibers -Characterized as low oxidative capacity but a high glycolytic capacity -Used in rapid, powerful movements(i.e. jumping, throwing, & sprinting)