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Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Question 1. Which of the following is NOT one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST? A) On‑demand self‑service B) Broad network access C) Fixed pricing model D) Measured service Answer: C Explanation: NIST defines on‑demand self‑service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service. Fixed pricing is not an essential characteristic. Question 2. In a public cloud deployment model, which statement best describes data isolation? A) All customers share the same physical storage without any logical separation. B) Data is isolated through virtualization and logical segmentation. C) Each customer must purchase a dedicated physical server. D) Data isolation is achieved only by encrypting data at rest. Answer: B Explanation: Public clouds rely on virtualization and logical segmentation (e.g., tenant IDs, VPCs) to isolate each customer’s data while sharing the same physical infrastructure. Question 3. Which service model provides the most control over the underlying operating system? A) SaaS B) PaaS C) IaaS
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
D) FaaS Answer: C Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) gives users control over the OS, middleware, and runtime, unlike higher‑level models that abstract these layers. Question 4. In a hybrid cloud architecture, which component typically connects an on‑premises data center to a cloud VPC? A) Load balancer B) VPN gateway C) Object storage bucket D) Serverless function Answer: B Explanation: A VPN gateway (or dedicated connection like Direct Connect) creates a secure tunnel between the on‑premises network and the cloud VPC. Question 5. Which Linux command changes the ownership of a file to user alice and group dev? A) chmod alice:dev file.txt B) chown alice:dev file.txt C) chgrp alice dev file.txt D) sudo usermod - a - G dev alice Answer: B Explanation: chown user:group file changes both user and group ownership.
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Branches let developers work on separate lines of code without affecting the main codebase. Question 9. Which Git workflow uses a long‑lived develop branch and short‑lived feature branches? A) Trunk‑based development B) GitFlow C) Forking workflow D) Centralized workflow Answer: B Explanation: GitFlow defines a develop branch for integration and feature branches for individual work. Question 10. When creating a pull request on GitHub, which action typically triggers a CI pipeline? A) Merging the pull request B) Opening the pull request C) Deleting the branch D) Adding a comment Answer: B Explanation: Most CI systems are configured to start builds when a pull request is opened or updated.
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Question 11. Which AWS service provides fully managed virtual machines? A) S B) EC C) Lambda D) RDS Answer: B Explanation: Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) offers scalable virtual servers. Question 12. What is the primary benefit of using an Auto Scaling Group (ASG) in AWS? A) Automatic backup of databases B) Dynamic adjustment of compute capacity based on demand C) Encryption of data at rest D) Centralized logging Answer: B Explanation: ASGs automatically add or remove EC2 instances to match defined scaling policies. Question 13. Which load balancer operates at Layer 7 and can route HTTP requests based on URL paths? A) Classic Load Balancer B) Network Load Balancer C) Application Load Balancer D) Gateway Load Balancer
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
A) Deployment B) Service C) ConfigMap D) Ingress Answer: B Explanation: A Service abstracts a group of Pods and offers a stable endpoint. Question 17. What does the kubectl apply - f manifest.yaml command do? A) Deletes resources defined in the manifest B) Creates resources only if they do not exist C) Creates or updates resources to match the manifest D) Generates a new manifest from the cluster Answer: C Explanation: apply performs a declarative create or update to make the live state match the desired state in the manifest. Question 18. Which Terraform command initializes a working directory containing configuration files? A) terraform plan B) terraform init C) terraform apply D) terraform validate Answer: B
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Explanation: terraform init downloads provider plugins and sets up the backend. Question 19. In Terraform, what is a state file used for? A) Storing variable values only B) Recording the current real‑world infrastructure for drift detection C) Defining module dependencies D) Encrypting secrets Answer: B Explanation: The state file tracks resources created by Terraform, enabling plan calculations and detecting drift. Question 20. Which Ansible module would you use to install a package on a Debian‑based system? A) yum B) apt C) dnf D) pacman Answer: B Explanation: The apt module manages packages on Debian/Ubuntu systems. Question 21. In Ansible, what is the purpose of a role? A) To store encrypted variables only B) To define a reusable set of tasks, handlers, variables, and files C) To execute ad‑hoc commands on a single host
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Question 24. Which S3 storage class is optimized for infrequently accessed data with lower durability guarantees? A) Standard B) Intelligent‑Tiering C) Glacier Deep Archive D) One Zone‑IA Answer: D Explanation: One Zone‑IA stores data in a single Availability Zone, offering lower cost for infrequent access but reduced durability compared to multi‑AZ classes. Question 25. In AWS RDS, what feature provides automatic failover to a standby instance? A) Read Replica B) Multi‑AZ deployment C) Aurora Serverless D) DynamoDB Streams Answer: B Explanation: Multi‑AZ RDS creates a synchronous standby in another AZ and automatically fails over during outages. Question 26. Which NoSQL database is a key‑value store with single‑digit millisecond latency at any scale? A) Amazon Aurora B) Amazon DynamoDB C) Amazon RDS MySQL
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
D) Amazon Redshift Answer: B Explanation: DynamoDB is a fully managed key‑value and document database designed for low‑latency performance. Question 27. What does the principle of least privilege dictate in IAM? A) Users should have admin rights on all resources. B) Users receive only the permissions required to perform their job functions. C) All users share a single generic role. D) Permissions are granted dynamically at runtime without policies. Answer: B Explanation: Least privilege limits access to the minimum necessary, reducing attack surface. Question 28. In the shared responsibility model, which security aspect is the customer responsible for in IaaS? A] Physical security of data centers B] Hypervisor patching C] Guest OS updates and application security D] Network backbone encryption Answer: C Explanation: In IaaS, the provider secures the infrastructure; the customer secures the OS, middleware, and applications.
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Answer: C Explanation: An error budget quantifies acceptable unreliability, allowing teams to decide when to prioritize reliability over new features. Question 32. Which FinOps practice helps reduce cloud spend by committing to longer‑term usage? A) Spot instances B) Reserved Instances / Savings Plans C) Auto‑Scaling groups D) Multi‑AZ deployments Answer: B Explanation: Reserved Instances and Savings Plans provide discounted rates in exchange for a commitment, lowering overall cost. Question 33. In disaster recovery, what is the RTO? A) Maximum acceptable data loss B) Time required to restore a service after a disruption C) Total cost of recovery D) Number of replicas required Answer: B Explanation: Recovery Time Objective (RTO) defines the target duration to restore functionality after a failure.
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Question 34. Which architectural pattern is best suited for a system that must handle traffic spikes without provisioning permanent capacity? A) Monolithic architecture B) Serverless architecture C) Single‑instance VM D) On‑premises data center Answer: B Explanation: Serverless platforms scale automatically in response to demand, making them ideal for unpredictable spikes. Question 35. What does the term edge computing refer to? A) Running workloads exclusively in a public cloud region. B) Processing data close to its source to reduce latency. C) Storing data in a central data warehouse. D) Using only containerized applications. Answer: B Explanation: Edge computing pushes compute resources nearer to devices or sensors, minimizing latency and bandwidth usage. Question 36. Which Git command creates a new branch named feature‑ui and switches to it? A) git checkout - b feature‑ui B) git branch feature‑ui C) git merge feature‑ui
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
A) The YAML definition of Pods B) Resource usage (CPU/memory) of each Pod C) The list of all services D) Pod logs Answer: B Explanation: kubectl top pods shows current CPU and memory consumption per Pod. Question 40. Which of the following is a best practice when storing secrets in a CI/CD pipeline? A) Hard‑code them in the pipeline YAML file. B) Store them in plain text in the repository. C) Use a secret manager (e.g., AWS Secrets Manager, HashiCorp Vault) and inject at runtime. D) Print them to console logs for debugging. Answer: C Explanation: Secret managers keep credentials encrypted and provide controlled access, reducing exposure risk. Question 41. In AWS, which service provides a managed DNS solution? A) Route 53 B) CloudFront C) S D) Elastic Load Balancing Answer: A
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Explanation: Amazon Route 53 offers DNS resolution, health checking, and traffic routing. Question 42. Which Azure service offers a fully managed Kubernetes environment? A) Azure VM Scale Sets B) Azure Service Fabric C) Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) D) Azure Functions Answer: C Explanation: AKS abstracts the control plane and simplifies cluster management. Question 43. What does the term immutable infrastructure imply? A) Servers are never patched. B) Once provisioned, resources are never modified; updates are performed by replacing them. C) All code is stored in read‑only repositories. D) Users cannot change IAM policies. Answer: B Explanation: Immutable infrastructure promotes replacing entire instances rather than mutating them, improving consistency and rollback. Question 44. Which Terraform construct allows you to reuse a set of resources across multiple configurations? A) Variable B) Provider C) Module
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Question 47. Which AWS service can be used to orchestrate serverless workflows? A) Step Functions B) CloudFormation C) CodeDeploy D) Elastic Beanstalk Answer: A Explanation: AWS Step Functions coordinate multiple Lambda functions and other services into state machines. Question 48. What is the primary purpose of a Network ACL in a VPC? A) To provide instance‑level firewall rules B) To define subnet‑level inbound and outbound traffic controls (stateless) C) To encrypt traffic between subnets D) To manage DNS resolution Answer: B Explanation: Network ACLs operate at the subnet level and are stateless, evaluating each packet against rules. Question 49. Which Kubernetes resource type is best suited for running a one‑off batch job? A) Deployment B) DaemonSet C) Job D) StatefulSet
Cloud Computing And DevOps Practice Exam
Answer: C Explanation: A Job ensures that a specified number of Pods successfully terminate after completing their task. Question 50. In Azure, what does the Azure Policy service help enforce? A) Network routing rules B) Resource tagging, naming conventions, and compliance standards across subscriptions C) VM auto‑scaling thresholds D) Database schema migrations Answer: B Explanation: Azure Policy evaluates resources against defined rules and can remediate non‑compliant configurations. Question 51. Which of the following is a key advantage of using a multi‑cloud strategy? A) Vendor lock‑in is increased B) Simplified management due to a single console C) Ability to leverage best‑of‑breed services and improve resilience D) Reduced network latency automatically Answer: C Explanation: Multi‑cloud allows organizations to pick optimal services from different providers and provides redundancy. Question 52. What does the term cold start refer to in serverless functions?
