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EMT Basic Final Exam Review

1. Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? A. System effectiveness management B. Total quality system C. Quality improvement D. Process Improvement Plan (PIP) ANS: C. Quality improvement 2. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? A. U.S. Department of the Interior B. U.S. Department of Health Services C. U.S. Department of Transportation D. U.S. Department of Homeland Security ANS: C. U.S. Department of Transportation 3. Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? A. Emergency preparedness plan B. Resource management

C. Central deployment D. Tauma system ANS: B. Resource management

4. Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? A. United States Health Services Agency (HSA) B. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) C. National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) ANS: D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) 5. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emer- gency medical services (EMS) system? A. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital B. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital C. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene D. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care ANS: A. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital 6. What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care?

A. Emergency Medical Technician

B. Emergency Ambulance Driver C. Advanced EMT D. Emergency Medical Responder ANS: A. Emergency Medical Technician

7. What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life- threatening problems? A. Cardiac care responder B. Emergency Medical Responder C. EMT D. Emergency Medical Dispatcher ANS: B. Emergency Medical Responder 8. What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? A. Emergency Medical Responder B. Paramedic C. Emergency Medical Technician D. Advanced EMT ANS: B. Paramedic 9. What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation precautions? A. Exposure-control plan B. Harm-reduction strategy C. Personal protective equipment D. Infection-control plan ANS: C. Personal protective equipment

10. Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? A. A study of the origins of infection and disease B. An organism that causes infection and disease C. A medication with a harmful effect D. An immunity developed after an exposure ANS: B. An organism that causes infec- tion and disease 11. An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? A. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration B. A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest C. A patient who is actively coughing D. A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris ANS: C. A patient who is actively coughing 12. Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using in addition to standard PPE. A. Face shields B. Heavy- duty gloves

C. Level B hazmat suits D. N-95 masks ANS: B. Heavy- duty gloves

13. You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient's mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, "Don't worry, I'm not contagious. I've had this cough for a year." Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. A. Mask yourself only B. Use gloves for PPE, as that's all that is needed C. Isolate the patient with a non-rebreather mask D. Mask yourself and the patient ANS: D. Mask yourself and the patient 14. Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? A. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves B. In cases where soap and water and alcohol- based hand cleaners are not immediately available, bleach wipes should be used C. If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient D. Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously ANS: C. If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient

15. Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contami- nated equipment? A. Hepatitis A B. Tuberculosis C. AIDS D. Hepatitis B ANS: D. Hepatitis B 16. Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? A. HIV positive needle sticks have a 30 percent infection rate B. Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS C. The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B D. HIV positive needle sticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate ANS: D. HIV positive needle sticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate 17. What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? A. Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens Act B. Ryan White CARE act

C. Communicable Disease Notification Act D. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 ANS: B. Ryan White CARE act

18. What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? A. Gloves B. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles C. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown D. Gloves and N-95 mask ANS: C. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown 19. Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?" A. Homeostasis B. Eustress C. Distress D. Stress ANS: D. Stress 20. Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT's health and well-being? A. Eustress B. Distress C. Megastress D. Hyperstress ANS: A. Eustress 21. The term burnout is also known as a(n) stress reaction A. Delayed

B. Cumulative C. Acute D. Post-traumatic ANS: B. Cumulative

22. Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n). A. Severe stress reaction B. Acute stress reaction C. Delayed stress reaction D. Cumulative stress reaction ANS: C. Delayed stress reaction 23. Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers kneel, curl the patient to their chest, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher? A. Draw-street method B. Power lift C. Direct carry D. Direct ground lift ANS: D. Direct ground lift

24. When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which of the following? A. Power grip B. Vise grip C. Lock grip D. Power lift ANS: A. Power grip 25. Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? A. your physical limitations B. The weight of the patient C. Communications D. All of the above ANS: D. All of the above 26. Which of the following is the correct position of an EMT's feet when lifting? A. As wide apart as possible B. Two feet apart C. As close together as possible D. Shoulder-width apart ANS: D. Shoulder-width apart 27. Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? A. Position your feet close together B. Use your legs to lift C. Twist your torso while lifting D. Use your back to lift ANS: B. Use your legs to lift 28. Which of the following should you do when reaching for something? A. Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body

B. Avoid twisting C. Keep your back in a locked- in position D. All of the above ANS: D. All of the above

29. Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? A. Unconditional consent B. Conscious consent C. Expressed consent D. Implied consent ANS: C. Expressed consent 30. Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? A. Scope of practice B. Professional standards C. Legal standards of practice D. Protocols and standing orders ANS: A. Scope of practice

31. The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT? A. Scope of practice B. Duty to act C. Standard of practice D. Protocols and standing orders ANS: A. Scope of practice 32. Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? A. Scope of practice B. Professional standards C. Standard of practice D. Protocols and standing orders ANS: C. Standard of practice 33. Your patient is a 40 year old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? A. Expressed consent B. Consent for mentally incompetent adults C. Implied consent D. Consent for treatment for minor emergencies ANS: C. Implied consent 34. Your patient is a 10 year old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? A. Get consent from the patient's 15 year old sister, who is at the scene B. Act on implied consent

C. Call the patient's mother at work D. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor ANS: C. Call the patient's mother at work

35. Your respond to a middle school for a 12 year old male patient who has been hit by a car.You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents? A. Informed consent B. Healthcare proxy C. In loco parentis D. Res ipsa loquitur ANS: C. In loco parentis 36. The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following? A. Standard of care B. Scope of practice

C. Duty to act D. Legal responsibility ANS: C. Duty to act

37. You arrive on the scene of a 55 year old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do? A. Provide emergency care under implied consent B. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law C. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service D. Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help ANS: A. Provide emergency care under implied consent 38. In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? A. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician B. Family members request that nothing be done C. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the care- giver presents documentation of the patient's wishes D. All of the above ANS: A. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order

signed by the patient and his physician

39. Your patient is a 45 year old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon ar- rival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seem short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? A. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the paitent's hose but he is now refusing care B. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed C. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem D. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital ANS: D. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital 40. You are on the scene with a 72 year old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the

hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? A. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient B. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care C. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness D. Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation ANS: B. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care

41. If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision? A. Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing B. Consult with the patient's physician C. Withhold resuscitative measures D. Begin resuscitative measures ANS: D. Begin resuscitative measures 42. Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? A. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help B. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physi- cian C. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff D. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic-

ANS: C. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff

43. Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate a 50 year old male patient who passed out and cut his upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true? A. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form B. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation C. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died D. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the

patient's medical condition ANS: B. The EMTs are negligent because there was prox- imate causation

44. An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements in true? A. The EMT is negligent because the patient died B. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping C. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act D. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment ANS: C. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to ac 45. Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws? A. An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off-duty B. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency C. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty D. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law ANS: B. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to

protect people who are trying to help in an emergency

46. Which of the following requires training, polices, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? A. COBRA B.EMTALA C.HIPAA D. HIAPA ANS: C.HIPAA 47. While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following? A. HIPAA violation B. Degradation of character C. Slander D. Libel ANS: D. Libel

48. You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the scene, you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you will take care of her first, he will ensure you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an EMT? A. Medical B. Ethical C. Financial D. Legal ANS: B. Ethical 49. While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patient's vacation home, which of the following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime scene? A. Using the patient's phone B. Moving the patient C. Using the bathroom D. All of the above ANS: D. All of the above 50. Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? A. Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony B. Preserving evidence C. Providing patient care D. Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene ANS: C. Providing patient care 51. Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene?

A. Your experience as an EMT B. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on scene C. How you gained access to the scene D. What route you took when responding to the scene ANS: C. How you gained access to the scene

52. You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? A. Medical history identifier B. Medical identification device C. Driver's license D. On call medical director ANS: B. Medical identification device 53. What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? A. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is

the study of injuries and disease processes B. The terms are synonymous C. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function D. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior ANS: C. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function

54. With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: A. A modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural B. Added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning C. The foundation of a word or term D.The combination of any two or more whole words ANS: B. Added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning 55. The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: A. Right medial B. Right upper C. Left lower D. Left upper ANS: A. Right medial 56. The term lateral is best defined as: A. Toward the middle of B. To the back of C. To the side D. Under the arms ANS: C. To the side 57. What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body?

A. Posterior B. Caudal C. Anterior D. Dorsal ANS: C. Anterior

58. The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its aspect. A. Medial B. Axillary C.Inferior D. Lateral ANS: A. Medial 59. You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is describes as: A. Posterior

B. Prone C. Anterior D. Supine ANS: B. Prone

60. Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? A. Standing up, facing forward, with arms raised above the head B. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent C. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips D. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward ANS: D. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward 61. You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know... walk?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she should avoid using medical terms unnecessarily when taking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" "What would you say?" A. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is a clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion B. You should say that you are an experience EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it C. Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as

being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers D. Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients ANS: A. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is a clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion

62. Why should an EMT avoid use of acronyms and abbreviations when com- municating? A. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different B. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports C. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient