Download EMT-B Final Exam Review with verified and 100% correct answers 2025/2026 Which of the fol and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity!
EMT-B Final Exam Review with verified
and 100% correct answers 2025/
Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? A. System effectiveness management B. Total quality system C. Quality improvement D. Process Improvement Plan (PIP) - Correct Answer-C. Quality improvement In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? A. U.S. Department of the Interior B. U.S. Department of Health Services C. U.S. Department of Transportation D. U.S. Department of Homeland Security - Correct Answer-C. U.S. Department of Transportation Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? A. Emergency preparedness plan B. Resource management C. Central deployment D. Tauma system - Correct Answer-B. Resource management Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? A. United States Health Services Agency (HSA) B. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) C. National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) - Correct Answer-D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? A. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital B. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital C. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene
D. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care - Correct Answer-A. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? A. Emergency Medical Technician B. Emergency Ambulance Driver C. Advanced EMT D. Emergency Medical Responder - Correct Answer-A. Emergency Medical Technician What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? A. Cardiac care responder B. Emergency Medical Responder C. EMT D. Emergency Medical Dispatcher - Correct Answer-B. Emergency Medical Responder What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? A. Emergency Medical Responder B. Paramedic C. Emergency Medical Technician D. Advanced EMT - Correct Answer-B. Paramedic What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation precautions? A. Exposure-control plan B. Harm-reduction strategy C. Personal protective equipment D. Infection-control plan - Correct Answer-C. Personal protective equipment Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? A. A study of the origins of infection and disease B. An organism that causes infection and disease C. A medication with a harmful effect D. An immunity developed after an exposure - Correct Answer-B. An organism that causes infection and disease An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? A. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration B. A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest C. A patient who is actively coughing
What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life- threatening diseases while on the job? A. Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens Act B. Ryan White CARE act C. Communicable Disease Notification Act D. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 - Correct Answer-B. Ryan White CARE act What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? A. Gloves B. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles C. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown D. Gloves and N-95 mask - Correct Answer-C. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?" A. Homeostasis B. Eustress C. Distress D. Stress - Correct Answer-D. Stress Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT's health and well-being? A. Eustress B. Distress C. Megastress D. Hyperstress - Correct Answer-A. Eustress The term burnout is also known as a(n) ____________ stress reaction A. Delayed B. Cumulative C. Acute D. Post-traumatic - Correct Answer-B. Cumulative Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n). A. Severe stress reaction B. Acute stress reaction C. Delayed stress reaction D. Cumulative stress reaction - Correct Answer-C. Delayed stress reaction Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers kneel, curl the patient to their chest, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher?
A. Draw-street method B. Power lift C. Direct carry D. Direct ground lift - Correct Answer-D. Direct ground lift When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which of the following? A. Power grip B. Vise grip C. Lock grip D. Power lift - Correct Answer-A. Power grip Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? A. your physical limitations B. The weight of the patient C. Communications D. All of the above - Correct Answer-D. All of the above Which of the following is the correct position of an EMT's feet when lifting? A. As wide apart as possible B. Two feet apart C. As close together as possible D. Shoulder-width apart - Correct Answer-D. Shoulder-width apart Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? A. Position your feet close together B. Use your legs to lift C. Twist your torso while lifting D. Use your back to lift - Correct Answer-B. Use your legs to lift Which of the following should you do when reaching for something? A. Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body B. Avoid twisting C. Keep your back in a locked- in position D. All of the above - Correct Answer-D. All of the above Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? A. Unconditional consent B. Conscious consent C. Expressed consent D. Implied consent - Correct Answer-C. Expressed consent Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT?
A. Standard of care B. Scope of practice C. Duty to act D. Legal responsibility - Correct Answer-C. Duty to act You arrive on the scene of a 55 year old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do? A. Provide emergency care under implied consent B. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law C. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service D. Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help - Correct Answer-A. Provide emergency care under implied consent In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? A. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician B. Family members request that nothing be done C. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes D. All of the above - Correct Answer-A. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician Your patient is a 45 year old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seem short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? A. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the paitent's hose but he is now refusing care B. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed C. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem D. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital - Correct Answer- D. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital You are on the scene with a 72 year old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next?
A. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient B. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care C. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness D. Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation - Correct Answer-B. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision? A. Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing B. Consult with the patient's physician C. Withhold resuscitative measures D. Begin resuscitative measures - Correct Answer-D. Begin resuscitative measures Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? A. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help B. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician C. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff D. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic - Correct Answer-C. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate a 50 year old male patient who passed out and cut his upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true? A. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form B. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation C. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died D. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical cond - Correct Answer-B. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by.
B. Moving the patient C. Using the bathroom D. All of the above - Correct Answer-D. All of the above Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? A. Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony B. Preserving evidence C. Providing patient care D. Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene - Correct Answer-C. Providing patient care Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene? A. Your experience as an EMT B. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on scene C. How you gained access to the scene D. What route you took when responding to the scene - Correct Answer-C. How you gained access to the scene You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? A. Medical history identifier B. Medical identification device C. Driver's license D. On call medical director - Correct Answer-B. Medical identification device What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? A. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes B. The terms are synonymous C. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function D. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior - Correct Answer-C. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: A. A modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural B. Added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning C. The foundation of a word or term D. The combination of any two or more whole words - Correct Answer-B. Added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: A. Right medial B. Right upper
C. Left lower D. Left upper - Correct Answer-A. Right medial The term lateral is best defined as: A. Toward the middle of B. To the back of C. To the side D. Under the arms - Correct Answer-C. To the side What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body? A. Posterior B. Caudal C. Anterior D. Dorsal - Correct Answer-C. Anterior The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its _________ aspect. A. Medial B. Axillary C.Inferior D. Lateral - Correct Answer-A. Medial You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is describes as: A. Posterior B. Prone C. Anterior D. Supine - Correct Answer-B. Prone Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? A. Standing up, facing forward, with arms raised above the head B. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent C. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips D. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward - Correct Answer-D. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know... walk?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she should avoid using medical
A. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent B. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMTs abilities more C. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms D. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation - Correct Answer-A. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent Which of the following are abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel? A. Abdominal sextants B. Abdominal quadrants C. Abdominal planes D. Abdominal regions - Correct Answer-B. Abdominal quadrants To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check fo a pulse in which location? A. Throat B. Upper arm C. Wrist D. Armpit - Correct Answer-C. Wrist Physiology is the study of: A. Exercise and nutrition B. Muscles and movement C. Body structures D. Body systems - Correct Answer-D. Body systems In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: A. Key elements of the central nervous system B. External landmarks of body structures C. The study of the skin D. Blood pressure fluctuations - Correct Answer-B. External landmarks of body structures Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? A. Tendons B. Acetabulum C. Fat D. Ligaments - Correct Answer-C. Fat Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax? A. Ischium B. Ribs C. 8th through 19th vertebrae
D. Sternum - Correct Answer-A. Ischium Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? A. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion B. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event C. Delayed capillary refill D. Hypotension - Correct Answer-A. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? A. Cervical and lumbar B. Sacral and coccygeal C. Cervical and thoracic D. Lumbar and sacral - Correct Answer-A. Cervical and lumbar Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses? A. Contractility B. Automaticity C. Conductivity D. Irritability - Correct Answer-B. Automaticity Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles? A. Bifurcation B. Inhalation C. Exhalation D. Gas exchange - Correct Answer-B. Inhalation What type of muscles control the size of bronchioles in the lungs? A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Striated D. Voluntary - Correct Answer-B. Smooth A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? A. Plasma B. White blood cells C. Corpuscles D. Platelets - Correct Answer-D. Platelets You are caring for a 47 year old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? A. Femoral arteries B. Coronary arteries C. Brachial arteries
B. Electrolytes C. Cations D. ATP - Correct Answer-B. Electrolytes The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is: A. Protein B. Water C. Oxygen D. Glucose - Correct Answer-D. Glucose Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism? A. Carbon monoxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Lactic acid D. Carbolic acid - Correct Answer-B. Carbon dioxide The seat of respiratory control is found in the: A. Lungs B. Nose C. Medulla oblongata D. Chest - Correct Answer-C. Medulla oblongata __________ blood returns to the right side of the heart A. Deoxygenated B. Oxygenated C. Anemic D. Red - Correct Answer-A. Deoxygenated The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as: A. Stridor B. Gurgling C. Rhonchi D. Rales - Correct Answer-A. Stridor The trachea branches off at the _________ and forms two mainstem bronchi A. Carina B. Bronchioles C. Alveoli D. Pleura - Correct Answer-A. Carina All of the following can result in airway obstructions, except: A. Burns B. Facial trauma C. Infections
D. The tongue - Correct Answer-D. The tongue Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is to: A. Auscultate for breath sounds B. Check for adequate chest rise C. Say "hello" D. Determine a respiratory rate - Correct Answer-C. Say "hello" What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air? A. Stridor B. Gurgling C. Hoarseness D. Snoring - Correct Answer-D. Snoring Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minutes due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You should: A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate B. Move the patient to the ambulance and suction C. Roll him over onto his side to clear his airway D. Perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs - Correct Answer-C. Roll him over onto his side to clear his airway Which of the following patients should NOT have their airway opened using a head tilt chin lift maneuver? A. A 25 year old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure B. A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders C. A 50 year old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter D. A 35 year old diabetic woman who is in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway, who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband - Correct Answer-B. A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders The jaw thrust maneuver is the only _______ airway procedure for an unconscious patient with possible head, neck, or spine injury or unknown mechanism of injury A. Recommended B. Prohibited C. Required D. Forbidden - Correct Answer-A. Recommended Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAs)? A. They do not come in pediatric sizes
A. Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, pink dry skin, normal mental status B. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status C. Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, hot clammy skin, normal mental status D. Rapid breathing, pale skin, and a normal mental status - Correct Answer-B. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status In assessing a patient's breathing, what is your first question? A. Is he alive or dead? B. Is he breathing? C. Is his breathing adequate or inadequate? D. Is he big sick of little sick? - Correct Answer-B. Is he breathing? Why is inhalation described as an active process? A. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to contract, creating a negative pressure B. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure C. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure D. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure - Correct Answer-D. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure The process of air moving in and out of the chest is called: A. Tidal volume B. Ventilation C. Inhalation D. Respiration - Correct Answer-B. Ventilation The normal stimulus to breathe is stimulated by the chemoreceptors that measure the change of what two gases? A. High carbon monoxide and low oxygen B. High hydrogen and low carbon dioxide C. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen D. Low hydrogen and high carbon monoxide - Correct Answer-C. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume? A. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas B. It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space C. The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement
D. The rate does not decrease minute volume, it actually increases - Correct Answer-A. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements? A. Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation B. Tidal volume and dead space air C. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate D. Tidal volume and respiratory rate - Correct Answer-D. Tidal volume and respiratory rate Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size up? A. Mechanism of injury B. Potential hazards to the EMS crew C. Need for additional resources D. Chief complaint - Correct Answer-D. Chief complaint At what point is the scene size up complete? A. Upon stabilization of the c spine B. At the end of the call C. When the number of patients has been determined D. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized - Correct Answer-B. At the end of the call At which of the following points should you begin your scene size up? A. When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance B. As you approach the scene in the ambulance C. When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence D. After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact - Correct Answer-B. As you approach the scene in the ambulance Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene size up? A. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence B. A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park C. A news media helicopter arrives and hovers overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision D. A vehicle collision involving a tractor trailer that appears to be empty - Correct Answer-A. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by: A. Borrowing turnout gear from the fire department B. Putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene C. Remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out
