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English Practice Test This sample English A2 Core Test provides a test structure, questions and
tasks similar to the certificated Tracktest exam. The Core Test is focused on the assessment of
English receptive skills and contains three sections: SECTION I: Grammar (Use of English)
SECTION II: Reading Comprehension SECTION III: Listening Comprehension Time: 45
minutes. In the official online version, you must complete each section (grammar, reading,
listening) before proceeding to the next section. The optional Speaking&Writing exam can be
completed after the successful completion of the Core test. This sample test is for practice only;
the official results and Tracktest certificates are provided only for computer tests taken through
the website https://tracktest.eu. More about the certificates for all English levels:
https://tracktest.eu/english-certification-online/ Page 2 Tracktest A2 English Practice Test For
the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu SECTION I: Grammar (Use of English) 1.
George is ................ than Nick. a) tall b) taller c) tallest 2. What time ..... Calais tomorrow
afternoon? a) do the ferry reach b) is the ferry reaching c) does the ferry reach 3. My
friend ..................... lives in Australia is a nurse. a) who b) which c) whose 4. I like walking in
the park ............. hot days. a) at b) on c) in 5. Centuries ago, people .......... animals for food. a)
transported b) played c) hunted 6. If he ................... the lottery, he'll go on a round-the-world
trip. a) won b) wins c) will win 7. John has to get ... early in the morning. a) on b) up c) down 8.
The door was locked so I ..... go inside. a) will be able to b) wasn't able to c) can 9. She
often ......................... to music when she does the housework. a) listens b) listening c) to listen
10. We ..... at the sports centre every Wednesday afternoon. a) are usually meeting b) usually
meet c) have usually met Page 3 Tracktest A2 English Practice Test For the full tests with
certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu 11. That's the man ..... son is a famous actor. a) who b)
where c) whose 12. ......... is a dairy product. a) Cheese b) Meat c) Rice 13. Greg .... down,
opened the book and began to read. a) was sitting b) sat c) has been sitting 14. Levi Strauss was
the man ................. invented blue jeans. a) who b) whose c) which 15. You have been to
Spain, ...............? a) have you b) you have c) haven't you 16. If you study hard, you ....... your
exams this time. a) passes b) pass c) will pass 17. This is the park ...... I take my dog every
afternoon. a) what b) where c) which 18. .................. do you like playing during long winter
evenings? a) What b) Which c) Why 19. Use this bowl. It's ..................... than the other one. a)
big b) bigger c) biggest 20. They ........... to Disneyland last week. a) went b) had gone c) will go
End of Section I (Grammar). Correct: ________ Page 4 Tracktest A2 English Practice Test For
the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu SECTION II: Reading Comprehension
Reading Task 1 Read and answer the questions below. WELCOME TO CYBERSPACE! Travel
around the magnificent world of the Internet with COMEWITHUS.COM. The Internet: a world
of information, entertainment and communication. Are you on-line? If not, think about what
you’re missing. You could get the latest news it even appears TV: you could take part in
discussions about things that interest you with people from around the world; you could make
new friends who share your ideas and hobbies; you could send messages to your friends abroad –
they will reach them immediately, and at a minimum cost; you could go shopping for anything,
anywhere in the world, and pay much less than you would in a shop. All you need to do is call us
FREE on 0800-600-600, and we will take care of everything! Everything you need will come to
your house in 24 hours, and you will be ready to start surfing the net! And, with
COMEWITHUS.COM, going on the Internet will cost you very little. For £25 a month, you can
have your own Internet connection, and your own e-mail address. So call us now, on 0800-600-
600, and start exploring the wonderful world of the Internet! 1. “COMEWITHUS.COM” sell a)
TVs b) telephones c) Internet connections 2. According to the advertisement, with
“COMEWITHUS.COM” you can a) make new friends b) travel abroad c) appear on TV 3. If you
want to connect to the Internet with “COMEWITHUS.COM” you have to a) send them a
message b) call them c) take part in a discussion 4. Calling “COMEWITHUS.COM” on the
phone will cost you a) a fortune b) very little c) nothing 5. What do “COMEWITHUS.COM”
give you for £25 per month? a) a computer b) an Internet connection c) a free telephone Page 5
Tracktest A2 English Practice Test For the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu
Reading Task 2 Read the article and mark the sentences below: "True" or "False". Hello, People
of Thailand! Whatever country we come from, whatever colour our skin is, we all have one thing
in common: we are all people of the world. Thailand is a beautiful country with a rich culture,
just south of China. People call it the jewel of south-east Asia for a good reason. Its tropical
climate, white sandy beaches and ancient temples make it a perfect holiday destination. What
makes it really special, though, is its people. Thai people are good-looking. They are short with
delicate features. They have got black hair, dark eyes and light brown skin. The Thais are
friendly people who are well known for being generous and kind. „We are happy people who
have strong wills and are especially proud of our history,“ says Kasem from Bangkok. Most
people in Thailand live in villages. A typical Thai village consists of wooden houses, a school
and a Buddhist temple. Most of the people in the villages are farmers and fishermen. The men
usually work in the fields or catch fish in the rivers, and the women plant the crops. Family life is
very important in Thailand, and families often eat together. Thai food is very spicy and includes
curries, fish, seafood, soups and noodles. „We eat rice with our meals and use a lot of strong
spices in our cooking,“ explains Kasem. Thai people love to enjoy themselves. Popular free-time
activities include Thai boxing and watching traditional dance shows. Thais also celebrate many
festivals throughout the year. „My favourite holiday is Surin, in November, when we always
have elephant football matches,“ says Kasem. Thailand is a wonderful country. Its fascinating
sights, rich cultural history and warm-hearted people make it unique. 1. Many people go fishing
and work in fields. ❏ True ❏ False 2. Thai people eat lots of rice and spices. ❏ True ❏ False 3.
Thai people like eating alone. ❏ True ❏ False 4. People of Thailand are very kind. ❏ True ❏
False 5. There are elephant football matches during Surin. ❏ True ❏ False Page 6 Tracktest A
English Practice Test For the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu Reading Task 3
Read the notice and mark the sentences below: "True" or "False". Do you love computers? Are
you aged 14-18? Then why not come to a camp where you can learn about the latest computer
technology under the supervision of university professors? E-CAMP, Baines University,
Massachusetts Meet teens from all over America and all over the world! The two-week camp
includes a variety of classes: • Learn how to create animated cartoons • Build radio-controlled
cars and robots • Design computer games It’s fun, too. You won’t just be sitting in front of a
the whole, a wonderful place to dine. However, I think the manager should make a few changes.
Firstly, she should have a wider selection of vegetarian dishes, so that all customers are satisfied.
Also she should make sure that all hot dishes are served hot. Finally, she should lower the prices
to give everyone a chance to visit this fabulous new restaurant. 1. The menu is great for
vegetarians. ❏ True ❏ False 2. The restaurant was rather expensive. ❏ True ❏ False 3. The
staff was rude. ❏ True ❏ False 4. The restaurant is a wonderful place to dine. ❏ True ❏ False
5. All hot dishes were served hot. ❏ True ❏ False End of Section II (Reading Comprehension).
Correct: ________ Page 9 Tracktest A2 English Practice Test For the full tests with certificates,
visit https://tracktest.eu SECTION III: Listening Comprehension Listening Task 1 (from
https://tracktest.eu/english-practice-test-with-answers-a2) Listen and mark the sentences below:
"True" or "False". 1. Brazilians don’t like eating with their friends. ❏ True ❏ False 2. Brazilians
don’t drink coffee in the evening. ❏ True ❏ False 3. Filipinos eat with a fork and a spoon. ❏
True ❏ False 4. Filipinos add rice into their desserts. ❏ True ❏ False 5. Finns like drinking
wine. ❏ True ❏ False Listening Task 2 (from https://tracktest.eu/english-practice-test-with-
answers-a2) Listen and mark the sentences below: "True" or "False". 1. Snakes cannot hear. ❏
True ❏ False 2. Snakes lay eggs. ❏ True ❏ False 3. Sea lions live in small groups. ❏ True ❏
False 4. Penguins’ eggs are black. ❏ True ❏ False 5. Penguins can be under the water for 18
minutes. ❏ True ❏ False Page 10 Tracktest A2 English Practice Test For the full tests with
certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu Listening Task 3 Listen to Tony talking to a friend about an
activity week. What did each person do? 1. Lucy: a) ball games b) water polo c) ice skating d)
tennis e) mountain biking f) kick boxing g) climbing h) boxing 2. Will: a) ball games b) water
polo c) ice skating d) tennis e) mountain biking f) kick boxing g) climbing h) boxing 3.
Catherine: a) ball games b) water polo c) ice skating d) tennis e) mountain biking f) kick boxing
g) climbing h) boxing 4. Helen: a) ball games b) water polo c) ice skating d) tennis e) mountain
biking f) kick boxing g) climbing h) boxing 5. Paul: a) ball games b) water polo c) ice skating d)
tennis e) mountain biking f) kick boxing g) climbing h) boxing End of Section III (Listening).
Correct: ________ ---------------- END ---------------- Page 11 Tracktest A2 English Practice Test
For the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu Answer Key: Section I: Grammar: 1b
(comparatives), 2c (questions), 3a (conjunctions), 4b (prepositions), 5c (vocabulary), 6b
(conditionals), 7b (phrasal verbs), 8b (past tenses), 9a (present tenses), 10b (present tenses), 11c
(conjunctions), 12a (vocabulary), 13b (past tenses), 14a (conjunctions), 15c (questions), 16c
(conditionals), 17b (conjunctions), 18a (questions), 19b (comparatives), 20a (past tenses)
Questions: 20 Correct answers: _____ Section II: Reading: Task 1: 1c, 2a, 3b, 4c, 5b Task 2: 1T,
2T, 3F, 4T, 5T Task 3: 1F, 2T, 3T, 4T, 5F Task 4: 1a, 2a, 3b, 4c, 5b Task 5: 1F, 2T, 3F, 4T, 5F
Questions: 25 Correct answers: ______ Section III: Listening: Task 1: 1F, 2F, 3T, 4T, 5F Task 2:
1T, 2T, 3F, 4F, 5T Task 3: 1c, 2e, 3a, 4d, 5g Questions: 15 Correct answers: ______ Total
questions: 60 The TOTAL correct answers: ________ Calculation of the result: (Correct answers
______ / 60 )*100= _______% Cut score for passing the level core test is 65% and more. With a
score of 65% and more, you would pass
the B2 level and get the Tracktest A2 certificate. With a score of less than 65%, you would not
pass the A2 level. You can try easier levels or take the same level again after 30 days.
UNIVERSITY OF WISCONSIN SYSTEM ENGLISH LANGUAGE USAGE & READING PRACTICE
EXAM Check us out at our website: http://www.testing.wisc.edu/center.html GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: You will have 90 minutes for this test. Work rapidly but carefully. Do no spend too much time on any one question. If you have time after you have finished the test, go back to the questions you have left unanswered. The three parts of this test are English Usage, Sentence Correction, and Reading Comprehension. When you have finished one part, go right on to the next part without stopping until you reach the end of the test. Read the instructions carefully since your task will NOT be the same for each section. Please read the sample problem(s) at the beginning of each section thoughtfully. In order to get the most accurate assessment using this practice test, you should try to duplicate the actual testing situation as closely as possible. When taking this test, you should not use any additional materials, such as dictionaries, or look up the answers to the questions. You should only allow yourself 90 minutes to take this test and should take the entire test in one sitting. If possible, take the test in a quiet room where you will not be interrupted. When you have completed the test, you should score your test using the answer key and scoring instructions provided on the last page. SECTION I - USAGE Directions: Some of the following sentences contain an error in grammar, usage, punctuation, or word choice. Some sentences are correct. No sentence contains more than one error. The error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. It is permissible to change, add, or delete words or punctuation when correcting the error. Assume that all other elements of the sentence are correct and cannot be changed. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English. If there is an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed in order to make the sentence correct. If there is no error, choose the final answer, E. SAMPLE PROBLEMS 1. Allan is afraid of the rain, he likes the thunder. No error. A B C D E Because two sentences divided only by a comma create a comma fault, either a conjunction must be added or the punctuation must be changed to a period or a semicolon. Therefore, C must be changed, and you would choose C. Note: when the punctuation is in question, the underlining may extend beneath a space, as in 1C. 2. Maria, who had just eaten, thought concerning having a candy bar or ice cream. No error. A B C D E Because we do not generally say “thought concerning,” but “thought about,” B must be changed and you would choose B. 3. Last spring the roofers replaced the asphalt shingles that a heavy snowstorm damages A B C during the preceding winter. No error. D E Because the damage from the snowstorm occurred in the past, “damages” should be replaced with the past tense form, “damaged.” Therefore, C must be changed, and you would choose C. Note: When there is a question about whether a punctuation mark should be added, an extra space is added between words and underlined, as in 3A and 3B. 1. It was not until I bought a car and graduating from high school that I dared even to think A B C about going out with somebody. No error. D E 2. When I was in Tiananmen Square, I recall, the pressure was tremendous. Because every A B C minute there was danger. No error. D E 3. Franklin the brave warrior that he is, would never run from a fight or shrink from a A B C D challenge. No error. E 4. The great tenor’s high notes, his amazingly sustained breathing, his exquisitely nuanced A B C phrasing--all these contribute to the most awesome sound in the world. No error. D E 5. Employees are to report to work as usual, however, they will be excused between 12:00 and A B 1:00 p.m. to attend events or observances of their choosing. No error. C D E 6. Every Friday, each of the girls takes her father to see the newest action movie. No error. A B C D E 7. There are many reasons for poverty, the first being that the wages paid the average worker are A B C not keeping up with the inflation that affects our economy. No error. D E 8.
different. If you think the original sentence is better than any of the suggested changes, choose the first answer (A); otherwise, select the best revision. SAMPLE PROBLEM 1. Heavy smoking and to overeat are activities which a heart patient must forego. A. Heavy smoking and to overeat B. Smoking heavily and to overeat C. To smoke heavily and overeating D. Heavy smoking and overeating E. Smoking heavy and to overeat Because standard English requires the same grammatical form for two units connected by and, either smoking or to overeat must be changed to gain parallelism. Among the options offered, only the form Heavy smoking and overeating is parallel, and you would choose D. 35. Just as I was despairing, a nun passes by and whispers encouragement. A. passes by and whispers B. is passing by and whispered C. is passing by and whispers D. passed by and whispers E. passed by and whispered 36. Not being aware of the legal implications of his action, an arrest was made by the security guard. A. an arrest was made by the security guard. B. the security guard called the police to arrest the offender. C. the offender was arrested by the security guard. D. the security guard made an arrest. E. an arrest was made by the police.
- Some couples are forbidden to divorce by religion, others are forbidden by social custom. A. others are forbidden by social custom. B. social custom forbids other couples. C. other couples are forbidden by social custom. D. others by social custom. E. social custom forbids others. 38. Amy couldn’t decide whether to stay at home in Texas during her vacation or if she should go to visit her relatives in New York. A. vacation or if she should go to visit B. vacation; or to visit C. vacation or to visit D. vacation, or if she should go to visit E. vacation. Or if she should go to visit 39. When one becomes a secret agent, you don’t write home very often. A. you don’t write home very often. B. a person doesn’t write home very often. C. she doesn’t write home very often. D. one doesn’t write home very often. E. people don’t write home very often. 40. Every one of the communities under discussion have adequate school facilities. A. Every one of the communities under discussion have B. Every one of the community’s under discussion have C. Everyone of the communities under discussion have D. Every one of the communities’ under discussion has E. Every one of the communities under discussion has 41. The package, rectangular in shape, lay on the counter. A. The package, rectangular in shape, B. The rectangular package C. The package, shaped like a rectangle, D. The packaged rectangle E. The rectangularly-shaped package 42. After driving for most of the day, they decided to stop at twilight. Even though they were very close to their final destination. A.. Even though they B.. Even though, they C. ; even though they D. , even though they E.. They 43. Although many people who listen to rock music do not know where it comes from it is actually a musical descendent of the blues A. from it is B. from, it is C. from it is, D. from; it is E. from: it is 44. Actors who look badly on stage probably perform badly in movies. A. badly on stage probably perform badly in movies. B. badly on stage probably perform bad in movies. C. bad on stage probably probably perform as bad in movies. D. bad on stage probably perform badly in movies. E. bad on stage probably perform bad in movies. 45. Gladys wanted to go to the museum to see the relics displayed there with her sister Evelyn. A. to see the relics displayed there with her sister Evelyn. B. with her sister Evelyn to see the relics displayed there. C. to see, along with her sister Evelyn, the relics displayed there. D. to see her sister Evelyn, whose relics were displayed there. E. with the relics display to see her sister Evelyn. 46. When he walked into the classroom, the students were sitting at their desks, staring at the chalkboard. A. When he walked B. Walking C. While walking D. He walked E. His having walked 47. Less than a minute after he had finished steam cleaning the carpet, Steve’s dog tracked mud all through the house. A. he had finished steam cleaning the carpet, Steve’s dog B. he steam cleaned the carpet, Steve’s dog had C. he finished steam cleaning the carpet; Steve’s dog D. Steve had finished steam cleaning the carpet, his dog E. Steve steam cleaned the carpet, his dog had 48. We took the day off; because, it was so nice. A. ; because, B. , because C. because D. , because, E. ; 49. The driver asked
would we move to the back of the bus to make room for people getting on. A. asked would we B. asked would we please, C. asked if we would D. asked us, if we would E. asked, would we 50. As my pace quickens, so does my breathing. A. As my pace quickens, so does my breathing. B. My breathing quickens like my pace. C. My pace and my breathing quicken. D. The pace quickening, my breathing quickens, too. E. As my pace quickens, my breathing quickens along with it. 51. Walking in the woods, spring wild flowers were seen. A. , spring wild flowers were seen. B. , we saw spring wild flowers. C. spring wild flowers were seen. D. , spring wild flowers could be seen blooming. E. wild flowers were springing to life. 52. The basement smelled musty and sometimes almost a rotten smell. A. The basement smelled musty and sometimes almost a rotten smell. B. The basement smelled mustily and sometimes almost rottenly. C. The basement smelled musty and sometimes almost rotten. D. The basement sometimes smelled musty and rotten. E. The basement smelled musty, and, sometimes, almost a rotten smell. 53. A tornado is a violent wind. One that takes the form of a funnel cloud. A. wind. One B. wind, one C. wind; one D. wind, it is one E. wind, 54. If you don’t claim your prize, it will revert back to the pot for next week’s subsequent drawing. A. revert back to the pot for next week’s subsequent drawing. B. revert back to the pot for next week’s drawing. C. revert to the pot for next week’s subsequent drawing. D. revert to the pot for next week’s drawing. E. revert to next week’s drawing. 55. The reason he failed the quiz is that the assigned chapter wasn’t read. A. that the assigned chapter wasn’t read. B. that the assigned chapter was not read. C. because the assigned chapter was not read. D. that he didn’t read the assigned chapter. E. because he didn’t read the assigned chapter. 56. When my friends went to the employment office, they had closed early. A. office, they had closed early. B. office, they had closed, early. C. office; it had closed early. D. office, he/she had closed early. E. office, it had closed early. 57. Connie was about 5'4" tall, weight unknown, but she was slender. A. weight unknown, but she was slender. B. her weight unknown, but slender. C. and, weight unknown, but slender. D. and, although her weight was unknown, she was slender. E. and of unknown but slender weight. 58. The sun rising over the horizon and spread a warm glow over the meadow. A. rising over the horizon and spread B. rising over the horizon, and spread C. rose over the horizon and spread D. rising over the horizon, spread E. rising over the horizon and spreading 59. Stretched out in single file, the explorers climbed along a narrow path that seems very little used. A. along a narrow path that seems B. along a narrow path that seemed C. along a narrow path. That seemed D. their way along a narrow path, E. along, seemingly, on a narrow path 60. When a person moves every year, one cannot expect them to develop civic pride. A. When a person moves every year, one cannot expect them B. When a person moves every year, he or she cannot expect them C. When people move every year, they cannot expect him or her D. When people move every year, one cannot expect them E. When you move every year, one cannot be expected SECTION III
- READING COMPREHENSION Directions: The passages below are followed by questions on the vocabulary, style, and meaning of the passages. After reading each passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions in terms of the context within the passage. He had reached that low point in the life of an assistant district attorney in the Bronx when he is assailed by Doubts. Every year forty thousand people, forty thousand incompetents, dimwits, alcoholics, psychopaths, knockabouts, good souls driven to some terrible terminal anger, and people who could only be described as stone evil, were arrested in the Bronx. Seven 5 thousand of them were indicted and arraigned, and then they entered the maw of the criminal justice system--right here--through the gateway into Gibraltar, where the vans were lined up. That was about 150 new cases, 150 more pumping hearts and morose glares, every week that the courts and the Bronx County District Attorney’s Office were open. And to what end? The same stupid, dismal, pathetic, horrifying crimes were committed day in and day out, all the same. 10 What was
Carmen Miranda’s popular Latinized female image, Chiquita Banana, to create a logo for their 5 imported bananas, they were trying to construct a new, intimate relationship between American housewives and a multinational plantation company. With her famous fruited hats and vivacious screen presence, Carmen Miranda was used by American men to reshape international relations. Carmen Miranda alerts us to the fact that it would be a mistake to confine an investigation of regional politics or international agribusiness to male foreign-policy officials, male company 10 executives and male plantation owners. Omitting sexualized images, women as consumers, and women as agribusiness workers leaves us with a political analysis that is incomplete, even naive. Cynthia Enloe, Bananas, Beaches, and Bases, 1990. 70. According to the passage, Carmen Miranda began her career as a A. movie star. B. Brazilian singer. C. symbol for a large plantation. D. ambassador from Latin America. E. sexualized image. 71. According to the author, Carmen Miranda was introduced to American movies in order to A. promote sexuality. B. sell bananas. C. help improve relations between the American government and the movie tycoons. D. help improve relations between the United States and Latin America. E. help President Roosevelt win reelection. 72. In line 1, “moguls” most nearly means A. movie stars. B. politicians. C. executives. D. immigrants. E. male foreign policy officials. 73. In line 4, the word “Latinized” means A. ancient. B. South American. C. sexy. D. exploited. E. Roman. 74. In the passage, the story of Carmen Miranda contributes to the overall meaning as A. a comparison. B. a contrast. C. a metaphor. D. an analogy. E. an example. “In Search of Our Mothers’ Gardens” And I remember people coming to my mother’s yard to be given cuttings from her flowers; I hear again the praise showered on her because whatever rocky soil she landed on, she turned into a garden. A garden so brilliant with colors, so original in its design, so magnificent with life and creativity, that to this day people drive by our house in Georgia–perfect strangers and 5 imperfect strangers–and ask to stand or walk among my mother’s art. I notice that it is only when my mother is working in her flowers that she is radiant, almost to the point of being invisible– except as Creator: hand and eye. She is involved in work her soul must have. Ordering the universe in the image of her personal conception of Beauty. Her face, as she prepares the Art that is her gift, is a legacy of respect she leaves to me, for 10 all that illuminates and cherishes life. She has handed down respect for the possibilities–and the will to grasp them. For her, so hindered and intruded upon in so many ways, being an artist has still been a daily part of her life. This ability to hold on, even in very simple ways, is work black women have done for a very long time. Alice Walker, from In Search of Our Mothers’ Gardens, 1983. 75. The author’s mother creates gardens because A. many people admire her flowers. B. she likes to give her flowers away. C. her soul needs to create beauty. D. she needs a hobby. E. the author likes to walk in her garden. 76. The tone of the passage is A. respectful. B. objective. C. bitter. D. ironic. E. sarcastic. 77. The reference to “Creator” in line 7 A. suggests that the mother credits God for her talent. B. suggests that the mother is God-like in her ordering of the universe. C. suggests that the mother is invisible when she is gardening. D. explains the religious legacy which the mother has passed to the author. E. explains the supernatural source for the radiance which surrounds the mother. 78. In the last two lines, “work black women have done for a very long time” refers to A. persevering in the face of difficulty. B. doing artistic yard work. C. setting a good example for children. D. sharing creations with others. E. being expected to work very hard. 79. The legacy given to the author by her mother is respect for A. the admiration of perfect strangers. B. the will to grasp life’s possibilities. C. all gardeners. D. her mother’s religion. E. art as ornamentation. These days I am often asked what I did in Tehran as bombs fell during the Iran-Iraq war. My interlocutors are invariably surprised, if not shocked, when I tell them that I read James, Eliot, Plath and great Persian poets like Rumi and Hafez. Yet it is precisely during such times, when our lives are transformed by violence, that we need works of imagination to confirm our 5
faith in humanity, to find hope amid the rubble of a hopeless world. Memoirs from concentration camps and the gulag attest to this. I keep returning to the words of Leon Staff, a Polish poet who lived in the Warsaw ghetto: “Even more than bread we now need poetry, in a time when it seems that it is not needed at all.” My Tehran classroom at times overflowed with students who ignored the warnings 10 about Iraq’s chemical bombs so they could reckon with Tolstoy’s ability to defamiliarize (a term coined by the Russian Formalist critics) everyday reality and offer it to us through new eyes. The excitement that came from discovering a hidden truth about Anna Karenina told me that Iraqi missiles had not succeeded in their mission. Indeed, the more Saddam Hussein wanted us to be defined by terror, the more we craved beauty. If I felt compelled to keep reading the classics, it 15 was in order to see the light in the eyes of my students. I remember two young women, clad from head to toe in black chadors, looking as if nothing in the world mattered more than the idea that Pride and Prejudice was subversive because it taught us about our right to make our own choices. Azar Nafisi, Words of War 80. The main idea of this passage is that A. literature becomes superfluous in the face of war and violence. B. the Iran-Iraq war was eerily similar to life in the Warsaw ghetto. C. literature provides empty but nonetheless welcome escapist entertainment during times of war. D. war and repression highlight and promote people’s need for the arts. E. the author’s students in Tehran were remarkably eager to learn. 81. The quote from Leon Staff (lines 7-8) most directly expresses a central A. apparent contradiction. B. metaphor. C. simile. D. coincidence. E. exaggeration. 82. The author’s primary motive for continuing his wartime teaching of classic texts was apparently A. to earn a living during difficult times. B. to distract his students from important issues. C. to inspire his students. D. to further Iranian goals in the war. E. to enhance his own understanding of the origins of violence. 83. The sentiment expressed in lines 15-18 is that A. Iranian women hate wearing chadors, symbols of their oppression. B. Iran has produced no literature of its own and is dependent on Western models. C. prejudice against other cultures is unwarranted. D. the writer’s students were unconcerned with current events. E. great literature has the capacity to liberate the human spirit. Since time immemorial, people have speculated what the world was made of. The Greeks thought that the universe was made of four elements: water, air, earth, and fire. The philosopher Democritus believed that even these could be broken down into smaller units, which he called “atoms.” But attempts to explain how atoms could create 5 the vast, wondrous diversity of matter we see in Nature always faltered. Even Newton, who discovered the cosmic laws which guided the motion of planets and moons, was at a loss to explain the bewildering nature of matter. All this changed in 1925 with the birth of the quantum theory, which has unleashed a thundering tidal wave of scientific discovery that continues to surge unabated 10 to this day. The quantum revolution has now given us an almost complete description of matter, allowing us to describe the seemingly infinite multiplicity of matter we see arrayed around us in terms of a handful of particles, in the same way that a richly decorated tapestry is woven from a few colored strands. Michio Kaku, Visions: How Science Will Revolutionize the 21 Century st 84. The main purpose of this passage is to explain A. how the Greeks were wrong about the elements. B. the history of scientific thought. C. the limits of Newton’s accomplishments. D. the importance of the quantum theory. E. the basic elements of the quantum theory. 85. The intended audience for this passage is most likely A. professional scientists. B. general readers interested in science. C. science teachers. D. historians of science. E. people already familiar with the quantum theory. 86. The phrase “thundering tidal wave” (line 9) is used to A. emphasize the impact of the quantum theory. B. make fun of the exaggerated claims made for the quantum theory. C. provide a comparison between the quantum theory and earlier theories. D. show that scientists are overwhelmed by the complexity of the quantum theory. E. show how the quantum theory works. 87. The end of the last sentence is meant to A. demonstrate the complexity of the quantum theory. B. explain the
fence-building homesteaders. But they could not stem the tide of change: With the strength of 15 numbers and the weight of the law on their side, the homesteaders prevailed. Time-Life Books Editors, The American Story: Settling the West,155. 94. The main point of this passage is that barbed wire fences A. hurt the American economy. B. ruined the land in the American West. C. made a huge impact on the make-up of the American West. D. made inventors rich. E. caused problems between settlers. 95. According to the passage, barbed wire fences A. were economical. B. replaced split-rail fences. C. were built by cattle barons. D. were against the law. E. were slightly better than simple wire fences. 96. According to the passage, cattle barons A. preferred split-rail fences to barbed wire fences. B. were in favor of change. C. outnumbered homesteaders. D. believed rangeland belonged to them. E. were intimidated by homesteaders who used barbed wire fences. 97. In the context of the passage, the word “momentous” (line 9) most likely means A. a moment in time. B. comforting. C. significant. D. small. E. inspirational. 98. This passage is primarily made up of A. facts. B. comparisons. C. generalizations. D. arguments. E. speculations. 99. The tone of this passage can best be described as A. sarcastic. B. objective. C. critical. D. argumentative. E. philosophical. Neurobiology, the study of the brain and its behavior, is one of the fastest growing of the biological sciences today. Electrical recording devices can be inserted even into single cells within the brain; the electron microscope can be used for fine study of the brain structures; and biochemical techniques are available for detecting changes in the brains of experimental animals as they learn. All 5 of these have contributed to an increasing understanding of the relationship between brain structure and function, and of the control processes which govern the relationships between the brain and the rest of the body, and between both of these and behavior. People often ask to what extent the operation of an animal or a human brain is predictable and manipulable--to what extent the brain is like a computer. We can describe the operation of the brain in terms of information theory, which has also been 10 used in the design of computers, and quite a few research workers today believe that it would be possible to understand more of the mechanism of the brain if we could make mathematical models of the interactions of individual nerve cells.... The comparison with computers is a valuable analogy of the sort that is useful in stimulating scientific research and understanding, but the most powerful computers yet built are not really capable 15 of showing the “intelligence” of a worm, still less of a human being. Nonetheless, if we understand computers, we may learn more about the brain, and by studying the brain we may well discover how to build better computers. Cells and Organisms Science Foundation Course Team The Open University, Walton Hall Bletchley, Buckinghamshire Great Britain 100. The word “analogy” in line 13 most nearly means A. experiment. B. function. C. structure. D. comparison. E. cause. 101. The first paragraph states that there are A. detectable changes in the brains of animals as they learn. B. changes in the size of the brains of animals as they learn. C. microscopic electronic changes in animal brain cells during learning. D. changes in the relationship between brain and behavior as animals learn. E. no changes in the brains of animals as they learn. 102. The third paragraph implies that the most powerful computers A. are “smarter” than the most intelligent human being. B. promise to solve the riddle of brain structure and function. C. are incapable of human intelligence. D. utilize electronic and biochemical techniques. E. will worm their way into more scientific research. 103. The passage implies that if we could make mathematical models of the interactions of brain cells, we would A. reach a greater understanding of the brain. B. no longer need electron microscopes and biochemical techniques. C. dictate human behavior absolutely. D. move beyond the use of the worm as an experimental animal. E. be able to insert electrical recording devices even into single brain cells. 104. The passage describes the relationship between neurobiology and computer science as A. competitive. B. mutually helpful. C. a relation of an art to a science. D. a relation of a young
science to a mature one. E. a relation of a fast growing science to a static one. END OF TEST ANSWER KEY The answers to this practice test are given below. Give yourself one point for each question you answered correctly and zero points for each question you answered incorrectly. Add up your points for all questions to obtain your total score. An average total score on the practice test is between 46 and 80 points. Section 1 Section 2 Section 3 1. A 35. E 61. D 95. A 2. C 36. D 62. D 96. D 3. A 37. D 63. E 97. C
- E 38. C 64. B 98. A 5. A 39. D 65. E 99. B 6. E 40. E 66. D 100. D 7. E 41. B 67. C 101. A 8. E 42. D
- B 102. C 9. C 43. B 69. E 103. A 10. B 44. D 70. B 104. B 11. A 45. B 71. D 12. B 46. A 72. C 13. D
- D 73. B 14. E 48. C 74. E 15. A 49. C 75. C 16. D 50. A 76. A 17. E 51. B 77. B 18. C 52. C 78. A 19. E 53. B 79. B 20. B 54. D 80. D 21. D 55. D 81. A 22. A 56. E 82. C 23. C 57. D 83. E 24. A 58. C 84. D
- B 59. B 85. B 26. B 60. D 86. A 27. B 87. D 28. E 88. C 29. B 89. D 30. B 90. C 31. B 91. A 32. E 92. D 33. C 93. B 34. C 94. C SECTION I: Grammar (Use of English) 1. Listen! A siren is .................. a) splashing b) wailing c) crashing d) barking 2. Sam hopes ....... an astronaut one day. a) becoming b) become c) to become 3. The man sitting next to me on the plane was very nervous. He .......... before. a) didn’t fly b) hadn’t flown c) hasn’t flown d) wasn’t flying 4. Where’s the book I gave you? What........................... with it? a) have you been doing b) are you doing c) have you done 5. "Paul lost his watch." "Well, if he had looked after it, he ...... it." a) won´t lose b) wouldn’t lose c) wouldn´t have lost 6. My father ... to be a teacher, but now he has retired. a) used b) got used c) is used 7. In recent years there has been a large increase .............. the number of people who take no regular exercise. a) of b) in c) for 8. By noon, Joe ......... for three hours. a) is going to fish b) will be fishing c) will have been fishing 9. It rained so hard the whole village ................ . a) scalded b) burnt c) flooded Page 3 Tracktest B2 English Practice Test For the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu 10. "I haven't seen Mark for weeks." "Well, I…. him this afternoon. Why don't you come along?" a) am meeting b) have met c) meet 11. I can't believe you're going on a cruise this summer; it must be costing the ..............! a) earth b) fortune c) nickel 12. Try ................ with olive oil. It'll taste better. a) to cook b) cooking c) cook 13. "Where is my bank book?" "If you ..... in the drawer, you'll find it." a) had looked b) looked c) look 14. "This cake tastes very sweet." "I think I put ... sugar in it." a) a lot b) too much c) too many 15. Neil was reading the newspaper when he came .... an article about an old friend of his. a) into b) across c) on d) up with 16. Jenny seems …. very happy these days. a) to be b) be c) being 17. "I ….. to reach Jane on the phone all day. " "Don't you know? She's gone on holiday." a) tried b) have been trying c) have tried 18. By the time Eric ……… at the airport, his flight had already departed. a) has arrived b) arrived c) was arriving 19. She was grateful to all the volunteers ............ their help. a) for b) about c) of d) in Page 4 Tracktest B2 English Practice Test For the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu 20. Lisa ..... the house when her husband came home. a) paints b) has painted c) was painting End of Section I (Grammar). Correct: ________ SECTION II: Reading Comprehension Reading Task 1 You are going to read a page from a brochure with advertisements for four unusual leisure experiences. For questions 1-7, choose from the advertisements (A-D). The advertisements may be chosen more than once or not chosen at all. Do Something Different A
- Indoor Skydiving If you have always wanted to try skydiving, but are afraid of flying, here is the answer
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do not need to use. The Accidental Movie Star Former Vice President of the U.S.A. Al Gore has made a film he hopes will help to change the way we view climate change. Al Gore has been concerned with climate change, or 'climate crisis' as he calls it, for the majority of his political career. As the years passed and he became more passionate about this issue, he started travelling the world in order to educate people about the effects of global warming using computer slideshows. Free of charge, he explained to his audiences that the world is facing a 'planetary emergency' and that it isn't too late to stop it if appropriate action is taken now. It was during this time of touring and giving lectures that Gore was spotted by Hollywood producer Laurie David, who asked him to turn his slideshow into a documentary which he would play the starring role. {1 ________} Eventually, though, David managed to persuade him. The result was a fascinating documentary combining references to Gore's own life story with horrifying predictions about the future of our planet. Little did Gore know that just one year later he would be walking along the red carpet at the Cannes Film Festival and later collecting an Oscar for 'Best Documentary'. {2 _______ } Advertised as 'the scariest movie you'll ever see,' it concentrates on the potentially terrifying consequences of climate change. 'An Inconvenient Truth' certainly gives us much to consider. For example, is there a link between the frequency of strong hurricanes and global warming? Why was 2005 the hottest year ever recorded? Could whole cities such as San Francisco one day be submerged in water due to rising sea levels? {3_______ } As the title of the film suggests, however, it may be inconvenient for us to have to think about the future of the planet, but think we must. Published at the same time as the release of the film, Gore's book of the same title contains additional information and scientific analysis to further support his claims. {4 _______} Gore is delighted that some schools are even using the DVD to help them teach awareness of environmental issues to their students. As pessimistic as the film may seem, it ends on a positive note. {5______} If Gore was going to present a problem, he wanted to offer a potential solution, too. His main hope is that people accept the reality of the crisis and then turn that knowledge into action. Gore leads by example. {6________ } He realises, however, that most people need a little more help when it comes to changing their habits. For this reason, he has also been working hard to encourage large shops to sell more environmentally friendly products. So can this one man's efforts really make a difference? {7 ________ } It may not seem as if the decisions of individuals can achieve very much, but put them all together and they may add up to something that will, literally, change the world. Page 7 Tracktest B2 English Practice Test For the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu A. The movie owes its success to its ability to hold our attention. B. He insists on using biodiesel vehicles and has decided to become carbon neutral, which means that he reduces the amount of carbon dioxide he produces every day. C. Well, according to Gore, if we are clear about what the problem is, then we are more likely to introduce changes into our daily lives, such as choosing the 'greenest' light bulbs or cars. D. Whilst both the film and the book have largely been well received by critics, they have been criticised by some as being 'exaggerated' and 'over-the-top'. E. The aim of the film certainly seems to be to 'shock' people into action, which may or may not be the best way to tackle the issue of global warming. F. The profits from both the film and the book are now funding other campaigns to spread the message about global warming. G. As Gore himself says, "It's not too late to solve this crisis, and solving it means avoiding the worst of the consequences and reversing this trend towards catastrophe." H. At first, Gore was reluctant, as he has always been a very private person, despite being used to being in the public eye. End of Section II (Reading Comprehension). Correct: ________ Page 8 Tracktest B2 English Practice Test For the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu SECTION III: Listening Comprehension Listening Task 1 (from https://tracktest.eu/english-practice-test-with- answers-b2) You will hear David telling his friend Janet about his recent trip to Brazil. Choose the best
answer. 1. Where was the first place he went? a) To the beach b) To the hotel c) To the Carnival 2. What does Dave say about the dancers? a) They were tireless b) They were tiring c) They were tired 3. What is the Sambodromo? a) A parade b) A street c) A dance 4. What does Dave say about the nightlife? a) It is an interesting mix b) He did not go out much c) The nightclubs were great 5. What is Janet going to do? a) Take some photos b) Look at some photos c) Get some photos developed Page 9 Tracktest B2 English Practice Test For the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu Listening Task 2 (from https://tracktest.eu/english-practice-test-with-answers-b2) Listen to the radio interview and mark the best answers. 1. Why was hypnosedation abandoned in India? a) because of the adverse side effects in patients b) because of the discovery of chemical anesthetics c) because of the advances in surgical techniques 2. According to the speakers, which country has made the most progress in the medical uses of hypnosis? a) Belgium b) the U.S.A. c) India 3. Which unconventional procedure is successfully used in Belgium today? a) local anesthesia b) pharmacological coma c) hypnosedation 4. Why can’t hypnosedation take the place of general anesthesia? a) There aren’t enough active supporters. b) Not everyone is affected by hypnosis. c) It’s not for people allergic to anesthetic drugs. 5. What can we speculate about hypnosedation? a) It has been fully accepted by the medical world. b) It hasn’t been fully accepted by the medical world. c) 60% of the general population is unresponsive to it. End of Section III (Listening). Correct: ________ ---------------- END ---------------- Page 10 Tracktest B2 English Practice Test For the full tests with certificates, visit https://tracktest.eu Answer Key: Section I: Grammar: 1b (vocabulary), 2c (infinitive/ing), 3b (past tenses), 4c (past tenses), 5c (conditionals), 6a (past tenses), 7b (prepositions), 8c (future tenses), 9c (vocabulary), 10a (future tenses), 11a (idioms), 12b (infinitive/ing), 13c (conditionals), 14b (quantifiers), 15b (phrasal verbs), 16a (infinitive/ing), 17b (present tenses), 18b (past tenses), 19a (prepositions), 20c (past tenses) Questions: 20 Correct answers: _____ Section II: Reading: Task 1: 1D, 2A, 3C, 4D, 5C, 6A, 7B Task 2: 1H, 2A, 3E, 4F, 5G, 6B, 7C Questions: 14 Correct answers: ____ Section III: Listening: Task 1: 1b, 2a, 3b, 4c, 5b Task 2: 1b, 2a, 3c, 4b, 5b Questions: 10 Correct answers: ____ Total questions: 44 The TOTAL correct answers: ________ Calculation of the result: (Correct answers ______ / 44 )*100= _______% Cut score for passing the level core test is 65% and more. With a score of 65% and more, you would pass the B2 level and get the Tracktest B2 certificate. With a score of less than 65%, you would not pass the B2 level. You can try easier levels or take the same level again after 30 days.
