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2025/2026

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741 Final Study Guide
1. Members of which IPAM security group have the needed privileges to view all IPAM data and
perform all IPAM tasks?
a.IPAM MSM Administrators
b.IPAM ASM Administrators
c.IPAM IP Audit Administrators
d. IPAM Administrators
2. Members of which IPAM security group are able to view information in IPAM and can perform
server management tasks?
a. IPAM MSM Administrators
b. IPAM ASM Administrators
c. IPAM IP Audit Administrators
d. IPAM Administrators
3. Members of which IPAM security group have the privileges to view IP address tracking
information?
a. IPAM MSM Administrators
b. IPAM ASM Administrators
c. IPAM IP Audit Administrators
d. IPAM Administrators
4. Members of which IPAM security group are able to view information in IPAM and can perform
IP address space management tasks?
a. IPAM MSM Administrators
b. IPAM ASM Administrators
c. IPAM IP Audit Administrators
d. IPAM Administrators
5. Which of the following tasks can be performed with IPAM? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Create DHCP scopes.
b. Create DNS records.
c. Create DNS zones.
d. Create SQL databases.
e.Edit DHCP server properties.
6. Which role allows users to manage DHCP servers using IPAM?
a. IPAM DHCP Administrator
b. IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator
c. DNS Record Administrator
d. IPAM IP Audit Administrator
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741 Final Study Guide

  1. Members of which IPAM security group have the needed privileges to view all IPAM data and perform all IPAM tasks? a.IPAM MSM Administrators b.IPAM ASM Administrators c.IPAM IP Audit Administrators d. IPAM Administrators
  2. Members of which IPAM security group are able to view information in IPAM and can perform server management tasks? a. IPAM MSM Administrators b. IPAM ASM Administrators c. IPAM IP Audit Administrators d. IPAM Administrators
  3. Members of which IPAM security group have the privileges to view IP address tracking information? a. IPAM MSM Administrators b. IPAM ASM Administrators c. IPAM IP Audit Administrators d. IPAM Administrators
  4. Members of which IPAM security group are able to view information in IPAM and can perform IP address space management tasks? a. IPAM MSM Administrators b. IPAM ASM Administrators c. IPAM IP Audit Administrators d. IPAM Administrators
  5. Which of the following tasks can be performed with IPAM? (Choose all that apply.) a. Create DHCP scopes. b. Create DNS records. c. Create DNS zones. d. Create SQL databases. e.Edit DHCP server properties.
  6. Which role allows users to manage DHCP servers using IPAM? a. IPAM DHCP Administrator b. IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator c. DNS Record Administrator d. IPAM IP Audit Administrator
  1. Which of the following actions should be performed to manage DNS and DHCP servers in other Active Directory forests? a. Add Everyone to the DNS and DHCP administrator groups. b. Configure a VPN tunnel to the DNS and DHCP servers. c. Configure a one-way trust. d. Configure a two-way trust.
  2. In which of the following situations is it appropriate to use Windows Server 2016 as a router between two networks? a. For heavy traffic on large networks b. For heavy traffic on small networks c. For light traffic on large networks d. For light traffic on small networks
  3. How are routing tables created dynamically? a. By using RIP b. With static routes c. By using the routing table protocol (RTP) d. By using a Layer 2 switch
  4. RRAS has multiple options available to select one or more services to provide users. Which of the following is the correct description for the Network Address Translation (NAT) option? a. Sets up the server to provide NAT services to clients on a private network that need to access the Internet b. Sets up a demand-dial or persistent connection between two private networks c. Sets up the server to support incoming VPN connections and to provide NAT services d. Sets up the server to accept incoming remote access connections (dial-up or VPN)
  5. Which OSI layer does a router run at? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 7
  6. Which Windows tool is used to provide RIP and BPG routing? a. Internet Security and Acceleration Server b. DirectAccess c. Routing and Remote Access d. Server Manager
  1. Setting up a NAT gateway is an excellent way to provide Internet access to a LAN. Which of the following is the best reason for setting up Internet access via NAT? a. To allow multiple computers access to the Internet b. To provide a type of firewall for a group of computers c. To provide proxy services to a LAN d. To use private IP addresses on the LAN
  2. Which of the following is the most efficient way to deploy VPN (virtual private network) configurations to hundreds of users? a. Create and distribute a document that explains all the settings. b. Create and distribute an executable file that contains all the settings. c. Configure all the client systems manually. d. Have the users bring in their systems individually for configuration.
  3. In which of the following situations would it be desirable to use a split tunnel for users? a. If the users work only from the office b. If the users might compromise security by browsing to insecure sites c. If the users have laptop computers and work from home or office d. If the users often need remote assistance
  4. Which of the following terms is defined as private data placed in a packet with a header containing routing information that allows the data to traverse a transit network, such as the Internet? a. Routing b. VPN c. Encapsulation d. Tunneling
  5. Which of the following is a reason to use a VPN for client-to-server connections over the Internet? a. VPN traffic is protected by a firewall. b. VPN traffic is encrypted c. VPN traffic goes undetected on the Internet. d. VPN traffic is proxy-proof.
  6. How is data integrity verified when transferred through the Internet? a. By cryptographic checksum b. By RAS callback options c. By correct firewall settings d. By using PPTP for VPN connections
  7. Of the four VPN tunneling protocols, which has the weakest encryption? a. L2TP b. IKEv c. SSTP d. PPTP
  1. Which authentication method is the weakest (least secure)? a. PAP b. CHAP c. MS-CHAPv d. EAP-MS-CHAPv
  2. Which authentication protocol allows changing an expired password during the connection process? a. PAP b. CHAP c. MS-CHAPv d. EAP-MS-CHAPv
  3. Which VPN protocol provides constant connectivity? a. L2TP b. IKEv c. SSTP d. PPTP
  4. Which VPN tunneling protocol uses IPsec with 3DES for data confidentiality? a. PPTP b. L2TP/IPsec c. SSTP d. IKEv
  5. Which form of authentication is used by SSTP? a. Digital certificates b. Pre-shared keys c. Network credentials d. Two-factor authentication
  6. Which component of SSTP ensures that when there is a break in connectivity, the user can continue without restarting the connection? a. IKEv b. IPsec c. ESP d. MOBIKE
  7. Which tool can be used to create and customize network connection profiles for deployment to client computers? a. Connection Manager Toolkit b. Connection Manager Administration Kit c. Connection Administration Kit d. Connection Management Toolkit
  1. Which of the following is the minimum client operating system required to use Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) VPN connections? a. Windows XP Professional SP b. Windows 7 SP c. Windows 8 d. Windows Vista SP e. Windows 10
  2. Windows 10 and Windows Server 2016 support multiple types of EAP-based authentication for VPN connections. Which of these is not supported for VPN connections? a. Protected EAP (PEAP) b. Secure Password (EAP-MSCHAPv2) c. Smart Card or other certificate d. EAP-TLS
  3. Which VPN protocol does not support using Password Authentication Protocol (PAP), Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), and Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol Version 2 (MSCHAPv2), and instead can only use EAP-MSCHAPv2 or a certificate for authentication? a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) b. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) c. Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) d. Internet Key Exchange version 2 (IKEv2)
  4. Which of the following VPN technologies requires certificates? a. PPTP b. SSTP c. L2TP and IPsec d. IKEv
  5. DirectAccess was introduced with which workstation/server pair? a. Windows XP/Windows Server 2003 b. Windows Vista/Windows Server 2008 c. Windows 7/Windows Server 2008 R d. Windows 8/Windows Server 2012
  6. Which kind of connectivity does DirectAccess establish between workstation and server? a. Unidirectional b. Bidirectional c. PPTP d. Virtual private network (VPN)
  7. Which type of server is the Network Location Server (NLS)? a. DNS b. DHCP c. Web d. AD
  1. The acronym ISATAP stands for which of the following? a. Industry Standard Architecture Tunnel Addressing Protocol b. Industry Standard Architecture Tunnel Access Protocol c. Intra -Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol d. Inter-Site Automated Tunnel Addressing Protocol
  2. Which utility should be used to configure DirectAccess? a. DNS console b. Active Directory console c. Remote Access Management console d. DirectAccess console
  3. Which of the following is the most basic requirement for a DirectAccess implementation? a. The DirectAccess server must be part of a cluster. b. The DirectAccess server must be highly available. c. The DirectAccess server must also run DNS services. d. The DirectAccess server must be part of an Active Directory domain.
  4. If the client cannot reach the DirectAccess server using 6to4 or Teredo tunneling, the client tries to connect using which protocol? a. IP -HTTPS b. HTTP c. DHCP d. HTTPS
  5. The netsh namespace show policy command is used for which of the following purposes? a. To show the DNS search order b. To display the static routing table for a namespace c. To show the NRPT rules as configured on the group policy d. To display the local DirectAccess security policy
  6. The netsh namespace show effectivepolicy command is used for which of the following purposes? a. To show the effective NRPT rules as configured on the group policy b. To show the effective group rights for DirectAccess c. To explicitly display the effective group policy rights for each user who has access to DirectAccess d. To determine the results of network location detection and the IPv6 addresses of the intranet DNS servers
  7. Which kind of connectivity does DirectAccess provide between client computers and network resources? a. Stable but limited b. Seamless and always on c. Active and firewalled d. Firewalled and passive
  1. The Remote Access Setup Wizard breaks the installation into four separate installations that give you a great deal of control over settings and configurations. Which of the following is the correct description for the installation of application servers? a.Configure your end-to-end authentication and security for the DirectAccess components. It also provides secure connections to individual servers.
  2. Which of the following VPN tunneling protocols should be used when all VPN traffic needs to be passed over TCP port 443 only? a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) b. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol over IPsec (L2TP/IPsec) c. Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) d. VPN Reconnect (IKEv2)
  3. Which of the following is the first thing to check when troubleshooting VPN problems? a. Network connectivity b. User names and passwords c. DNS lookups d. Firewall settings
  4. You are an administrator for an organization that has about 1,200 remote users, which are running computers with Windows 10. You want to make it simple for users to connect to the VPN server no matter which operating system they are using. Which VPN protocol would you use? a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) b. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol over IPsec (L2TP/IPsec) c. Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) d. VPN Reconnect (IKEv2)
  5. Unlike traditional VPN connections, DirectAccess connections are established automatically and provide which kind of connectivity? a. On-demand b. TCP/IP initiated c. WAN-to-LAN d. Always on and seamless
  6. Which of the following is the best reason for deploying DirectAccess connectivity for remote users? a. Remote users’ computers can be easily managed and kept up to date. b. Remote users’ computers connect automatically. c. Remote computers connect via encrypted links over the Internet. d. Remote users can access corporate resources.
  1. Which one of the Remote Access Management interfaces provides the most control? a. The Remote Access Management console b. The Getting Started Wizard c. The Remote Access Setup Wizard d. The command-line dnscmexe command
  2. Which kind of RADIUS server is placed between the RADIUS server and RADIUS clients? a. A RADIUS client server b. A RADIUS engine server c. A RADIUS proxy server d. A RADIUS relay server
    1. Which of the following is a RADIUS server known as in Microsoft parlance? a. Network Access Server b. Network Policy Server c. Network Authentication Server d. Network Remote Access Server
    2. Which ports do Microsoft RADIUS servers use officially? a. 1511 and 1512 b. 1612 and 1613 c. 1812 and 1813 d. 2012 and 2013
  3. When an access client contacts a VPN server or wireless access point, a connection request is sent to which system? a. The NPS server b. The 802.1X switch c. An authorization relay d. An access client
  4. Which system, in a RADIUS infrastructure, handles the switchboard duties of relaying requests to the RADIUS server and back to the client? a. The NPS server b. The access client c. The wireless access point d. The access server
  5. Which of the following is the final step in the authentication, authorization, and accounting scenario between an access client and the RADIUS server? a. A log entry that the connection is established b. An Access-Reject message to the access server c. A final credential check with the domain controller d. An Accounting-Response to the access server
  1. Which method of user authentication is considered too insecure because user names and passwords are sent in plaintext? a. PAP b. CHAP c. MS-CHAPv d. Smart card
  2. If using this method for authentication, certificates that include the Client Authentication purpose are needed? a. PAP b. CHAP c. MS-CHAPv d. Smart card
  3. Which password-based authentication method is the choice for Microsoft-only clients? a. PAP b. CHAP c. MS-CHAPv d. Smart card
  4. An NPS policy is a set of permissions or restrictions that determine which three aspects of network connectivity? a. Who, what, and where b. Who, when, and how c. Who, when, and where d. Who, how, and how long
  5. Which Active Directory object trait can be configured to authorize or deny a remote connection? a. Group membership b. Bandwidth limitations c. Corporate status d. Job role
  6. The default connection request policy uses NPS as which kind of server? a. DNS b. Active Domain controller c. RRAS d. RADIUS
  7. In which of the following locations is the default connection policy configured to process all authentication requests? a. On the domain controller b. At the RADIUS proxy server c. Locally d. In a separate database
  1. Which of the following is the final setting in the Routing and Remote Access IP settings? a. The number of assigned IP addresses b. Which DHCP server will supply the requests c. Which NPS server to connect to d. How IP addresses are assigned
  2. Which command-line utility is used to import and export NPS templates? a. dnscmd b. netsh c. msconfig d. net
  3. To which type of file is an NPS configuration exported? a. TXT b. DOC c. XML d. NPS
  4. In which of the following situations should the command-line method of exporting and importing the NPS configuration not be used? a. When the source NPS server and target NPS servers are on different IP subnets b. When the source NPS database has a higher version number than the version number of the destination NPS database c. When the source NPS server and target NPS servers are different revisions of Windows Server d. When the network policy forbids the export of the NPS configuration
  5. Network policies determine which two important connectivity constraints? (Choose two answers.) a. Who is authorized to connect b. The DHCP server for the connection c. The DNS server for the connection d. The connection circumstances for connectivity
  6. When the remote access server finds an NPS network policy with conditions that match the incoming connection attempt, the server checks any _______________ that have been configured for the policy. a. realms b. constraints c. options d. permissions
  1. Which of the following is used to restrict the policy to only clients that can be identified through the special mechanism, such as a NAP statement of health? a. Identity Type b. Calling Station ID c. Client Friendly Name d. Called Station ID
  2. Which of the following is the name of the RADIUS client computer that requests authentication? a. Identity Type b. Calling Station ID c. Client Friendly Name d. Called Station ID
  3. When setting up authentication to NPS services for Microsoft-only clients, which type of authentication should always be used? a. PAP b. CHAP c. MS-CHAP d. MS-CHAPv
  4. Which of the following would be the biggest problem with configuring text files for accounting logging? a. Space; filling up the C drive has catastrophic effects. b. Logs are saved in plaintext format. c. Data isn’t sent to a SQL Server database. d. Writing logs to disk requires disk I/O, which might impact performance.
  5. An administrator would create a RADIUS template to do which of the following? a. Easily create multiple RADIUS servers from it. b. Consistently create multiple RADIUS servers from it. c. Create RADIUS servers without affecting the functionality of NPS. d. Apply it to selected servers.
  6. For which of the following reasons is there a No Encryption option for network connections? a. To accommodate devices (clients) that don’t support encryption b. To test connectivity before applying an encryption scheme c. To allow for third-party encryption programs that might be incompatible with native encryption d. To allow certain trusted connections to remain unencrypted
  7. RADIUS Access-Request messages are processed or forwarded by NPS only if the settings of the incoming message match which of the following on the NPS server? a. One of the connection request policies b. The time zone of the requestor c. The client type of the requestor

d. The TCP/IP port of the requestor

  1. Network Access Policy is part of which larger scope NPS policy? a. Connection request b. Network c. Health d. Realm
  2. DFS Namespace shared folders are referred to as which of the following in relation to the virtual folders? a. Targets b. Folder spaces c. Redirects d. Links
  3. Which of the following is the primary difference between domain-based namespace and stand-alone namespace? a. The names given to namespaces b. Where the namespaces are stored c. The number of servers participating in the namespace d. The requirement for at least one Windows Server 2008 system
  4. DFS Namespace for Windows Server 2016 uses the Windows Server 2008 mode by default, and supports up to 50,000 folders. How many folders does deselecting Windows Server 2008 mode provide? a. 500 b. 1, c. 3, d. 5,
  5. Which of the following terms is defined as “an ordered list of servers or targets that a client computer receives from a domain controller or namespace server when the user accesses a namespace root or a DFS folder with targets”? a. Namespace b. Reference c. Referral d. Target list
  6. How do you secure DFS Namespaces? a. NTFS permissions b. Shared folder permissions c. NTFS and shared folder permissions d. Specialized DFS folder permissions
  7. Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of DFS Replication? a. Additional network bandwidth required b. Additional CPU power required c. Additional memory required

c. Replication folder d. Staging folder

  1. If an administrator wants to save on CPU and disk I/O but consume more network bandwidth for replication, which DFS feature can be disabled? a. Remote differential compression (RDC) b. Collective compression technology (CCT) c. Shortest path replication (SPR) d. Server-to-server replication compression (S2SRC)
  2. Which of the following actions can be taken to change bidirectional replication into unidirectional? (Choose two possibilities.) a. Change share permissions. b. Remove the trust relationships between systems. c. Remove member servers from the domain. d. Disable one of the connections.
  3. As an administrator for your company, you have a centralized file server and a remote file server. You want to configure DFS Replication between the two servers so that you can perform backups with the centralized file server. You started to perform DFS Replication but determined that it will take weeks for the initial replication to occur. How can you speed up the initial replication? a. Configure the replication to use full speed b. Assign two NICs to the site server. c. Ship a disk with the files, preseed the files, clone the database from the remote file server, and import the database into the centralized file server. d. Copy the files manually from the site server to the centralized file server.
  4. Which of the following is an advantage of disabling automatic auto-recovery for DFS databases when the DFSR service stops abnormally? a. To prevent the constant restarting of the DFS initial replication b. To prevent the automatic deleting of files that have not been replicated c. To prevent the reseeding of the replicated files d. To have the opportunity to fix any underlying problems and to back up the existing replicated folders before recovery begins
  5. Which of the following is the maximum supported size of all the replicated files on a server running Windows Server 2016 with DFS? a. 1 TB b. 10 TB c. 100 TB d. 250 TB
  1. When setting target priority on a root target for a domain-based namespace, referral ordering can be overridden and a priority can be selected The “Last among all targets” option specifies which of the following? a. Users should always be referred to this target if the target is available. b. Users should never be referred to this target unless all other targets are unavailable. c. Users should be referred to this target before other targets of equal cost (which usually means other targets in the same site). d. Users should never be referred to this target if other targets of equal cost are available (which usually means other targets in the same site).
  2. When setting target priority on a root target for a domain-based namespace, referral ordering can be overridden and a priority can be selected The “First among targets of equal cost” option specifies which of the following? a. Users should always be referred to this target if the target is available. b. Users should never be referred to this target unless all other targets are unavailable. c. Users should be referred to this target before other targets of equal cost (which usually means other targets in the same site). d. Users should never be referred to this target if other targets of equal cost are available (which usually means other targets in the same site).
  3. When setting target priority on a root target for a domain-based namespace, referral ordering can be overridden and a priority can be selected The “Last among targets of equal cost” option specifies which of the following? a. Users should always be referred to this target if the target is available. b. Users should never be referred to this target unless all other targets are unavailable. c. Users should be referred to this target before other targets of equal cost (which usually means other targets in the same site). d. Users should never be referred to this target if other targets of equal cost are available (which usually means other targets in the same site).
  4. When setting target priority on a root target for a domain-based namespace, referral ordering can be overridden and a priority can be selected The “First among all targets” option specifies which of the following? a. Users should always be referred to this target if the target is available. b. Users should never be referred to this target unless all other targets are unavailable. c. Users should be referred to this target before other targets of equal cost (which usually means other targets in the same site). d. Users should never be referred to this target if other targets of equal cost are available (which usually means other targets in the same site).
  5. Which of the following protocols is not supported by BranchCache? a. HTTP/HTTPS b. SMB c. BITS