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Microsoft Exam Notes, Cheat Sheet of Information Technology

Illinois Institute of Technology (IIT)Information Technology

Microsoft Exam Notes Microsoft Exam Notes

Typology: Cheat Sheet

2025/2026

Uploaded on 01/23/2026

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740 Final Study Guide
1. Which of the following are valid reasons for using an legacy network adapter rather than a
synthetic one? (Choose all that apply.)
a. You want to install the guest OS using a Windows Deployment Services server.
b. There is no Guest Integration Services package available for the guest OS you plan to use.
c. The manufacturer of your physical network adapter has not yet provided a synthetic network
adapter driver.
d. The emulated network adapter provides better performance.
2. Which of the following statements is not true about synthetic network adapters?
a. Synthetic adapters communicate with the parent partition using the VMBus.
b. Synthetic adapters require the Guest Integration Services package to be installed on the guest OS.
c. Synthetic adapters provide faster performance than legacy adapters.
d. Synthetic adapters can start the child VM using a PXE network boot.
3. Which of the following is the maximum number of ports supported by a Hyper-V virtual
switch?
a. 8
b. 256
c. 4,096
d. Unlimited
4. Which of the following virtual switch types does not enable guest OSs to communicate with the
parent partition?
a. External
b. Internal
c. Private
d. Isolated
5. How many dynamically assigned MAC addresses can be provided by a Hyper-V server by
default?
a. 8
b. 256
c. 4,096
d. Unlimited
6. Virtual switches can be created after which of the following roles is installed?
a. Hyper-V
b. Application Server
c. Remote Access
d. Network Policy and Access Services
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740 Final Study Guide

  1. Which of the following are valid reasons for using an legacy network adapter rather than a synthetic one? (Choose all that apply.) a. You want to install the guest OS using a Windows Deployment Services server. b. There is no Guest Integration Services package available for the guest OS you plan to use. c. The manufacturer of your physical network adapter has not yet provided a synthetic network adapter driver. d. The emulated network adapter provides better performance.
  2. Which of the following statements is not true about synthetic network adapters? a. Synthetic adapters communicate with the parent partition using the VMBus. b. Synthetic adapters require the Guest Integration Services package to be installed on the guest OS. c. Synthetic adapters provide faster performance than legacy adapters. d. Synthetic adapters can start the child VM using a PXE network boot.
    1. Which of the following is the maximum number of ports supported by a Hyper-V virtual switch? a. 8 b. 256 c. 4, d. Unlimited
    2. Which of the following virtual switch types does not enable guest OSs to communicate with the parent partition? a. External b. Internal c. Private d. Isolated
    3. How many dynamically assigned MAC addresses can be provided by a Hyper-V server by default? a. 8 b. 256 c. 4, d. Unlimited
    4. Virtual switches can be created after which of the following roles is installed? a. Hyper-V b. Application Server c. Remote Access d. Network Policy and Access Services
  1. Creating the default virtual switch places, it between _____ and _____. a. the physical switch; the network adapter in the host operating system b. the virtual adapter; the network adapter in the host operating system c. the network adapter; the virtual adapter in the host operating system d. the physical switch; the next upstream physical switch
  2. Which of the following statements best describes how to create a virtual switch for the purpose of isolating virtual machines (VMs) from the external network and the host operating system? a. You must create an external virtual switch. b. You must create an internal virtual switch. c. You must create a private virtual switch. d. You cannot isolate VMs from the external network.
  3. Which is faster, a standard network adapter or a legacy network adapters adapter? a. Standard, because it does not correspond to a real-world device

b. Legacy, because it is legacy and more compatible c. Standard, because it uses the VMBus d. Legacy, because it uses the VMBus

  1. Which of the following methods can be used to team up physical Ethernet adapters so that the hosts can have better performance and fault tolerance? (Choose two answers.) a. NIC teaming b. Virtual machine queue c. Remote Direct Memory Access d. Switch Embedded Teaming
    1. Which of the following is a lightweight virtual machine that can provide an isolated environment for applications? a. Containers b. ESXi node c. VDI node d. Virtual namespace
  2. Microsoft PackageManagement is also known as which of the following? a. Sandbox b. DockerMsftProvider c. NuGet d. OneGet
  1. Which command is used to upload a container to the DockerHub? a. docker ssh b. docker azure c. docker pull d. docker push
  2. Which of the following allows the placement of an offline copy of a VM that is regularly updated? a. Data deduplication b. DFS replication c. Cluster replication d. Hyper-V Replica
  3. Which component of the Hyper-V Replica performs the replication of Vms? a. Replication engine b. Change Tracking c. Network module d. Change Manager
  4. How is data replicated when replicating to a Hyper-V Replica? a. HTTP b. Telnet c. FTP d. TFTP
  5. Which program is normally used to enable Hyper-V replication? a. Hyper-V Manager b. Hyper-V Replica c. Failover Cluster Manager d. Hyper-V Replica Broker
  6. When a VM is replicated as a Hyper-V Replica, the replicated VM is considered to be which of the following? a. Cold server b. Warm server c. Hot server d. Dynamic server
  1. Which of the following provides encryption for Hyper-V replication over the network? a. HTTPS b. SSH c. SFTP d. TFTP
    1. If a secondary site is available to be used as a backup site, which basic network services are necessary? (Choose all that apply.) a. SMTP b. SQL Server c. AD DS d. DNS
    2. Which of the following advanced options are available when selecting where to move items during an LM? a. Copy the virtual machine. b. Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items. c. Register the virtual machine in place. d. Move the virtual machine’s data automatically.
    3. When using remote management tools to perform LM, which of the following needs to be configured? a. CredSSP b. Kerberos c. OVF d. Constrained delegation
    4. Which of the following is the name of the process for moving an entire VM or parts of a VM to another physical server without a cluster? a. Quick Migration b. Storage Migration c. Constrained delegation d. Live Migration
    5. Which of the following is the name of the process for moving an entire VM or parts of a VM to another physical server using a cluster? a. Quick Migration b. Storage Migration c. Constrained delegation d. Live Migration
  1. When adding or removing a node from an NLB cluster, which of the following must happen? a. Adaptation b. Reset c. Convergence d. Redefine
  2. Which types of parameters configure the NLB cluster? (Choose all that apply.) a. Convergence rules b. Balance parameters c. Cluster parameters d. Host parameters e. Port rules
  3. Which of the following specifies how NLB directs traffic based on the port and protocol? a. Convergence rules b. Balance parameters c. Cluster parameters d. Host parameters e. Port rules
  4. Which of the following determines how servers are balanced with NLB? a. Affinity b. Drainstop c. State sequencing d. Convergence
  5. Which mode allows an NLB cluster to use two MAC addresses for the NLB network adapter? a. Unicast mode b. Multicast mode c. Internet Group Management Protocol multicast mode d. Converging mode
  6. Which action blocks all new connections without terminating existing sessions? a. Blocking b. Suspended c. Drainstop d. Multimode
  1. Typically, port rules would be identical on all nodes on the cluster. What are the exceptions where the port rules don’t have to be identical? a. Handling priority b. TCP, UDP, or both c. Load weight d. Ports
  2. A two-node NLB cluster is intended to provide high availability and load balancing for the Contoso.com website. It has only the default port rule. Which two steps need to be configured for the NLB cluster to accept only HTTP traffic? (Choose all that apply.) a. Run the vlbs disable all command. b. Delete the default port rule. c. Create a new Allow rule for TCP port 80. d. Change the default port rule to a disabled port range rule.
  3. Microsoft releases a new code pack that enables viewing RAW camera files. Which category of update does this fall under? a. Recommended updates b. Important updates c. Optional updates d. Suggested updates
  4. Which of the following is the correct location to configure how Windows Update functions in Windows Server 2016? a. Control Panel > System > Windows Update b. Control Panel > System and Security > Windows Update c. Control Panel > System > Security > Windows Update d. Control Panel > Network and Internet > Windows Update
  5. Which of the following is true about a replica mode WSUS server? (Choose all that apply.) a. It mirrors update approvals, settings, computers, and groups from the upstream server. b. It mirrors update approvals, settings, computers, and groups from the downstream server. c. It can be used to approve updates. d. It cannot be used to approve updates.
  6. Which of the following best describes server-side targeting? (Choose all that apply.) a. Uses the Update Services console to move computers into computer groups b. Uses the Local Group Policy editor to create a group policy designating the computer group to add the computer to c. Uses the Group Policy Management Console to create a group policy designating the computer group to add the computer to d. Results in computers initially being added to the Unassigned Computers group
  1. Which wbadmin command backs up the system state on a domain controller to a remote volume located on Server02 named SysState? a. wbadmin start backup –backuptarget:\server02\SysState b. wbadmin start backup –systemstate \server02\SysState c. wbadmin start backup –systemstate –backuptarget:\server02\SysState d. wbadmin start backup –systemstate –target:\server02\SysState
  2. Which Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) component is responsible for making sure the data is ready for the shadow copy to be created? a. VSS requester b. VSS provider c. VSS writer d. VSS ShadowWriter
  3. Which of the following are characteristics of Shared Copies for Shadow Volumes (SCSV)? a. It’s enabled on a per-volume basis. b. By default, shadow copies are taken at 7:00 AM and 12:00 AM (Monday–Friday). c. The volumes must be formatted using NTFS. d. Mount points are supported.
  4. A Bare Metal Recovery backup includes which of the following? a. System state b. System reserved c. Critical volumes d. Volumes containing user data files
  5. When should a manual backup be performed in place of a regularly scheduled backup? (Choose all that apply.) a. The volume isn’t included in your regular backups. b. The backup needs to be done outside the normally scheduled window. c. The backup needs to be stored in a location that is different from the one used for automatic backup. d. A change to the server needs to be made (for example, install a new service pack).
  6. You select the faster backup performance option via the Windows Server Backup console > Actions panel > Configure Performance Settings. Which of the following describes the impact of making this configuration change on future backups? (Choose all that apply.) a. This indicates you are performing incremental backups after the initial full backup. b. After you reach 14 incremental backups and more than 14 days have passed, Windows Server Backup will still perform a full backup. c. After you reach 21 incremental backups and more than 10 days have passed, Windows Server Backup will still perform a full backup.

d. After you reach 14 incremental backups and more than 30 days have passed, Windows Server Backup will still perform a full backup.

  1. Which of the following is used to view the Windows logs? a. Performance Monitor b. Reliability Monitor c. System Viewer d. Event Viewer
  2. When troubleshooting a problem and using Event Viewer, which of the following should be used to help focus on a reduced set of events? a. Permissions b. Rights c. Views d. Filters
  3. Which program is used to stop a running process? a. Performance Monitor b. Reliability Monitor c. Task Manager d. Event Viewer
  4. Which program is used to determine what process is using a file? a. Performance Monitor b. Reliability Monitor c. Task Manager d. Resource Monitor
  5. Which of the following is used to group multiple performance counters so that they can be used over and over in Performance Monitor? a. Replay Monitor b. Event Viewer c. Data Collector Sets d. Task Manager
  6. After installing a new server (Server1), which is a file and print server, you have received several calls from users who are complaining of slow performance when opening files from the server. Which two tasks determine which application is using the most processing? (Choose all that apply.) a. Open Event Viewer and review the Performance logs. b. Open Task Manager and view the Processes tab. c. Open Resource Monitor and use the Resource View to see the percentage of processor capacity used by each application. d. Open Performance Monitor and view the appropriate performance counter.
  1. Creating a new virtual switch automatically connects the host operating system with the child partition VMs, by default. Which setting can be changed during virtual switch creation to disconnect the host OS? a. Enable virtual LAN identification for management operating system b. Allow management operating system to share this network adapter c. Enable single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV) d. Internal
  2. How many virtual network adapters can be created on a Hyper-V server? a. Up to 12 network adapters—8 synthetic and 4 emulated b. Up to 12 network adapters—4 synthetic and 8 emulated c. Up to 8 network adapters—4 synthetic and 4 emulated d. Up to 8 network adapters—4 synthetic and 4 emulated
  3. How should an administrator set up a new virtual network adapter to communicate on a network VLAN? a. Select Tunneling LAN in Hyper-V Server network settings. b. Select Enable VLAN in the Hyper-V Manager network settings. c. Select Enable virtual LAN identification and enter a VLAN identifier to associate the network adapter to the VLAN. d. Virtual network adapters cannot communicate on a LAN.
  4. Which of the following hardware acceleration features is not supported by virtual network adapters in Windows Server 2016? a. Enable virtual machine queue b. Enable IPsec task offloading c. MAC address caching d. Single-root I/O virtualization
  5. What is the common name for a network adapter’s hardware address and how long is it? a. IP address, 6 bytes b. Media Access Control (MAC) address, 6 bytes c. IP address, 4 bytes d. Media Access Control (MAC) address, 8 bytes
  6. How do virtual network adapters running on a child partition communicate with the parent partition? a. Synthetic adapters communicate by using the VMBus; emulated adapters communicate by making calls to the hypervisor. b. Emulated adapters communicate by using the VMBus; synthetic adapters communicate by making calls to the hypervisor. c. Both synthetic and emulated adapters communicate by using the VMBus. d. Both synthetic and emulated adapters communicate by making calls to the hypervisor.
  1. How many virtualized ports are available when using Hyper-V to create a virtual switch? a. 16 b. 256 c. 1, d. Unlimited
  2. How many virtual adapters are included, by default, after creating a VM? a. 0 b. 1 c. 4 d. Unlimited
  3. Which of the following is a device that functions at layer 2 of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) reference model, like its physical counterpart? a. Virtual router b. Virtual network adapter c. Virtual switch d. Virtual LAN
  4. Which of the following represents the PowerShell cmdlet (with basic syntax) that would be used to create a private network switch called HalifaxLAN and connect it to a VM's adapter named NSNet1? a. New-VMSwitch “HalifaxLAN” –NetAdapterName “NSNet1” –SwitchType Private b. New-VMSwitch “HalifaxLAN” –NetAdapterName “NSNet1” –SwitchType "Private" c. New-Switch “HalifaxLAN” –NetAdapterName “NSNet1” –SwitchType "Private" d. New-Switch “HalifaxLAN” –NetAdapterName “NSNet1” –SwitchType Private
  5. Which of the following tasks must be completed when using NIC teaming with Windows Server 2016 virtual machines? (Choose two answers.) a. Configure a NIC team virtual network adapter. b. Bind the two NICs together by using the Windows PowerShell set-Bind cmdlet. c. Connect two virtual cables to the VM. d. Create a team virtual switch.
  6. Which of the following is the maximum number of NICs used in NIC teaming for Hyper-V virtual machines? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 32 e. 64
  1. What is a solution to providing external services to VMs on an isolated, private network? a. Install two network adapters per VM—one to a private switch and the other to the external switch.
  2. What can an administrator do if the pool of virtual MAC addresses is depleted? a. Set the Minimum and Maximum values to create a larger pool of MAC addresses.
    1. Which PowerShell cmdlet is used to create a new virtual switch? a. New-VMSwitch
  3. How many real MAC addresses are associated with every network adapter? a. One
    1. How many types of virtual switches can be created by Hyper-V? a. Three
  4. Which of the following is the key benefit for creating a virtual switch? a. Virtual switches enable VMs to participate on the networks to which the physical adapters are connected. b. Virtual switches require no space in the rack. c. Virtual switches enable the Hyper-V server to participate on the networks to which the physical adapters are connected. d. Virtual switches have unlimited ports, so there's no need to connect physical switches by uplinks or crossover circuits.
  5. Which servers can communicate with each other after creating a private virtual switch? a. Only the VM of the parent partition can communicate with the physical network. b. VMs on both the parent and child partitions can communicate with each other. c. VMs on child partitions and the parent partition cannot communicate with each other. d. Only VMs on the child partitions can communicate with each other.
  6. Hyper-V assigns a value of up to 256 to create individual MAC addresses for virtual network adapters. What happens if this number is not sufficient? a. Hyper-V cannot support more than 256 virtual network adapters per VM. b. If more than 256 adapters are needed, Hyper-V will re-assign used MAC addresses not currently in use. c. If more than 256, but less than 512 adapters are needed, Hyper-V will couple network adapters together. d. If more than 256 adapters are needed, an administrator can modify the MAC address pool to be larger.
  1. Which of the following has a simulated environment that is based on an operating system instance running on the container host? a. Sandbox b. Docker c. Container d. Virtual machine
  2. Which of the following is derived from the container OS Image and applications/data, and is stored in a repository? a. Docker b. Data volume c. DockerHub d. Container image
  3. Which of the following are the two types of containers available in Windows Server 2016? (Choose two answers.) a. Docker containers b. Hyper-V containers c. Windows Server containers d. Sandbox containers
  4. Which type of container shares the OS kernel with the container host and with all other containers that run on the host? a. Docker containers b. Hyper-V containers c. Windows Server containers d. Sandbox containers
  5. In Windows Server 2016 containers, which of the following provides a layer that consists of all changes made to the container? a. Sandbox b. Docker c. ContainerImage d. Virtual machine
  6. Which of the following is a package manager for containers that is used to discover and install software packages over the Internet? a. Microsoft Azure b. OneGet c. Sandbox d. DockerHub
  1. Container data volumes are stored in which of the following locations? a. C:\programdata\docker\volumes b. C:\docker\volumes c. C:\volumes d. C:\program files\docker\volumes
  2. Which of the following is a text document that contains all the commands a user could call to assemble an image, including using an existing image as a base? a. DockerMsftProvider b. Docker Build c. DockerHub d. Dockerfile
  3. Which of the following is a cloud-based public registry service that is used for building and shipping applications and containers? a. DockerMsftProvider b. Docker Build c. DockerHub d. DockerFile
  4. Which type of Windows Server 2016 container provides a more isolated environment than Windows Server containers, because they do not share with other Hyper-V containers? a. Hyper-V containers
  5. Which term refers to a software wrapped in a complete file system that includes everything it needs to run? a. Docker container
  6. Which command is used to list all Docker containers? a. docker ps -a
  7. Which Windows PowerShell command is used to list all container images? a. Get-ContainerImage
  8. What is the name of the cloud-computing platform that is used for building, deploying, and managing applications and services through a global network of Microsoft-managed data centers? a. Microsoft Azure
  9. Which type of container is the most secure? a. Windows Server container running on Windows Server 2016 Server Core b. Hyper-V containers running on a Windows Server 2016 Core c. Windows Server container running on Nano Server d. Hyper-V containers running on a Nano Server
  1. Which of the following prerequisites must be met before attempting a Live Migration? (Choose all that apply.) a. All hosts must use processors from the same manufacturer. b. All hosts must support hardware virtualization. c. All hosts must be running on the same model server. d. All VMs must be configured to use OVH format disks on SCSI disks.
  2. Which task must be completed first to allow for Kerberos authentication to function if Live Migration will be performed using remote management tools? a. Configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the target server. b. Configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the source server. c. Configure Credential Security Support Provider permissions on the target server. d. Configure Credential Security Support Provider permissions on the source server.
  3. When performing a Live Migration, there are several options available to choose from that control how the LM will occur. Which of the following is not one of these options? a. Move the virtual machine’s data to a single location. b. Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items. c. Move only the virtual machine. d. Move only the snapshot files.
  4. When performing a Live Migration using the “Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items” option, there are three additional, advanced options available. Which of the following is not one of these advanced options? a. Move the VM’s data automatically. b. Move the VM’s data to different locations. c. Move the VM’s hard disks to different locations. d. Move the VM’s items to different locations.
  5. Quick Migration occurs within the confines of which of the following? a. A failover cluster b. An Active Directory forest c. A Virtual Machine Manager farm d. A network load balanced cluster
  6. Which two factors are the primary items impacting the speed of a Quick Migration? (Choose two answers.) a. The speed of the network between the source and destination servers b. The speed of the disks in the source and destination servers c. The speed of the RAM in the source and destination servers d. The amount of memory that needs to be written to disk